Patient Data
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices area to specify which condition the client is most likely experiencing, two actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and two parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress.
The Correct Answer is []
- Tardive dyskinesia is most likely because the client exhibits rhythmic tongue protrusion and involuntary facial and shoulder movements, classic signs after chronic chlorpromazine use. Long-term dopamine blockade causes these irreversible motor symptoms.
- Anaphylaxis typically presents with airway compromise, rash, hypotension, and tachycardia. The client's stable respiratory status and isolated involuntary movements are not consistent with an allergic reaction.
- Postural hypotension would involve symptoms like dizziness or fainting on position changes, which are not described. The client's blood pressure is stable, and there are no signs of orthostatic intolerance.
- Opioid withdrawal usually presents with symptoms such as agitation, sweating, diarrhea, and abdominal cramping. The client’s involuntary muscle movements are neurologic, not signs of opioid withdrawal.
- Give diphenhydramine IV is indicated for acute dystonic reactions, not tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia requires different management focused on antipsychotic adjustment, not antihistamine therapy.
- Assess the client's medication history is important because chronic exposure to first-generation antipsychotics like chlorpromazine strongly increases the risk for tardive dyskinesia. Understanding medication use helps confirm diagnosis and guide treatment.
- Give a bolus of IV fluids is unrelated to involuntary motor symptoms. There is no evidence of dehydration or shock, and IV fluids will not address tardive dyskinesia.
- Hold the next dose of chlorpromazine is essential because continued dopamine receptor blockade can worsen the severity and permanence of tardive dyskinesia. Discontinuing or adjusting medication is a priority intervention.
- Initiate fall precautions could be reasonable for overall safety but is secondary to addressing the medication cause. The priority is to stop progression of symptoms by modifying the antipsychotic regimen.
- Mental status should be closely monitored because clients with neurologic side effects may experience confusion, worsening agitation, or other mental changes, especially when medications are adjusted.
- Pulse deficit monitoring is not clinically useful in tardive dyskinesia. It is more relevant in assessing cardiac arrhythmias and is not connected to the client's neurologic symptoms.
- Respiratory rate monitoring is important generally but does not directly assess for the progression or resolution of tardive dyskinesia, which affects motor function rather than breathing.
- Standing blood pressure is useful when evaluating for postural hypotension, but there is no evidence suggesting orthostatic instability in this client’s presentation.
- Extrapyramidal symptoms must be continuously monitored because their worsening or improvement will guide the need for further neurologic evaluation and possible medication adjustments.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Notify the healthcare provider (HCP) that the client may need a change in dosage: Lansoprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, requires several weeks of continuous use to promote sufficient healing of erosive esophagitis. Reporting to the provider after just one week would be premature unless severe symptoms worsen.
B. Advise the client that healing typically takes several weeks to occur: Full therapeutic effects of proton pump inhibitors like lansoprazole can take 4 to 8 weeks. Educating the client about the expected treatment timeline helps set realistic expectations and encourages adherence to the prescribed regimen.
C. Confirm that the client is taking the medication one hour after meals: Lansoprazole should be taken before meals, not after, to inhibit active proton pumps in the stomach lining. However, the primary concern here is the normal expected time course for healing, not the timing of the dose in relation to meals.
D. Auscultate the client's bowel sounds and measure the abdominal girth: Monitoring for bowel issues would be relevant if there were signs of gastrointestinal complications like obstruction or perforation, but these assessments are not indicated by the client’s report of minimal GERD symptom improvement after only one week.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Trouble sleeping: Sleep disturbances are not a major concern before administering pyridostigmine. Although insomnia can occur with many medications, it is not directly impacted by pyridostigmine, nor does it influence the decision to give the drug safely.
B. Recent oral intake: Pyridostigmine should be given on a consistent schedule relative to meals to optimize absorption and minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Additionally, coordinating dosing with food can help maximize muscle strength for chewing and swallowing, critical concerns in myasthenia gravis.
C. Unexplained weight loss: While significant weight loss could suggest disease progression or nutritional problems, it is not immediately relevant to the safe administration of pyridostigmine. Monitoring weight is important long-term but does not alter short-term dosing considerations.
D. Difficulty with urination: Pyridostigmine can affect smooth muscle function, including the bladder, but urinary issues are not the primary focus prior to administration. Ensuring safe medication absorption and effectiveness related to food intake is more critical immediately before dosing.
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