Patient Data.
Which order would the nurse question? Select all that apply.
Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours as needed for temperature greater than 100.5 °F (38 °C).
Enalapril 10 mg every morning.
Supplemental oxygen 10 L/min via nasal cannula.
Continuous pulse oximetry.
Send blood for a complete blood count, electrolytes, blood cultures, and procalcitonin.
Admit to the medical floor.
Vital signs every 4 hours.
Chest x-ray now.
Sputum culture and sensitivity.
Levofloxacin 500 mg intravenously every 24 hours.
Correct Answer : A,B,C
Choice A rationale:
Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours as needed for temperature greater than 100.5 °F (38 °C). This order is questionable because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can potentially increase blood pressure, which could be harmful to a patient with hypertension. Furthermore, NSAIDs can mask the symptoms of infection, which could delay the diagnosis and treatment of serious infections.
Choice B rationale:
Enalapril 10 mg every morning. This order is questionable because enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat hypertension. However, ACE inhibitors can cause a dry cough, which could exacerbate the patient’s existing cough due to pneumonia. Additionally, ACE inhibitors can potentially cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), so it’s important to monitor the patient’s electrolyte levels.
Choice C rationale:
Supplemental oxygen 10 L/min via nasal cannula. This order is questionable because a high flow rate of oxygen can potentially cause oxygen toxicity or hyperoxia, which can lead to cellular damage. The typical flow rate for a nasal cannula is between 1-6 L/min. A flow rate of 10 L/min may be too high for this patient, especially without a specified target SpO2 range.
Choice D rationale:
Continuous pulse oximetry. This order is appropriate because it allows for continuous monitoring of the patient’s oxygen saturation levels, which is crucial in a patient with pneumonia and shortness of breath.
Choice E rationale:
Send blood for a complete blood count, electrolytes, blood cultures, and procalcitonin. This order is appropriate because these tests can help monitor the patient’s overall health status and response to treatment.
Choice F rationale:
Admit to the medical floor. This order is appropriate because the patient requires hospitalization for treatment and monitoring due to his pneumonia.
Choice G rationale:
Vital signs every 4 hours. This order is appropriate because it allows for regular monitoring of the patient’s vital signs, which can help detect any changes in his condition.
Choice H rationale:
Chest x-ray now. This order is appropriate because a chest x-ray can help confirm the diagnosis of pneumonia and assess its severity.
Choice I rationale:
Sputum culture and sensitivity. This order is appropriate because it can help identify the specific organism causing the pneumonia and determine its antibiotic sensitivity, which can guide antibiotic therapy.
Choice J rationale:
Levofloxacin 500 mg intravenously every 24 hours. This order is appropriate because levofloxacin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic commonly used to treat pneumonia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Concerns about parenting. While concerns about parenting are important to address during prenatal care, the initial visit focuses on gathering essential information and providing education related to pregnancy and childbirth. Knowledge about labor and delivery is crucial for the client to understand the process and make informed decisions.
Choice B rationale:
Cultural practices related to childbearing. Cultural practices related to childbearing are also essential topics to discuss during prenatal care, but they may not be the highest priority at the initial visit. Understanding the client's cultural background and beliefs is important, but providing information about pregnancy and childbirth should take precedence during the first prenatal visit.
Choice C rationale:
Complications associated with childbirth. Discussing complications associated with childbirth is important, but it may be overwhelming for a client during the initial prenatal visit. The primary focus should be on providing basic information and addressing immediate questions and concerns, with more in-depth discussions about complications occurring in subsequent visits.
Choice D rationale:
Knowledge about labor and delivery. This is the correct choice because the initial prenatal visit should include education about pregnancy, labor, and delivery. Providing the client with essential knowledge about what to expect during labor and delivery empowers her to make informed decisions and plan for her childbirth experience.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Granulating tissue in a foot ulcer is a positive sign of wound healing, but it may not be directly related to the effectiveness of pregabalin in treating diabetic peripheral neuropathy. The primary goal of pregabalin in this context is to reduce pain and neuropathic symptoms.
Choice B rationale:
A reduced level of pain is the most relevant indicator of the effectiveness of pregabalin in treating diabetic peripheral neuropathy. Pregabalin is an antiepileptic medication used to manage neuropathic pain. A decrease in pain indicates that the medication is effectively managing the client's symptoms.
Choice C rationale:
Improved visual acuity is not directly related to the effectiveness of pregabalin in treating diabetic peripheral neuropathy. Pregabalin primarily targets neuropathic pain and sensory symptoms, not visual function.
Choice D rationale:
A full volume of pedal pulses is a positive sign of adequate circulation in the lower extremities, but it may not be directly related to the effectiveness of pregabalin in treating neuropathy symptoms. The primary goal of pregabalin in this context is pain management.
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