Phenytoin (Dilantin) suspension 200 mg is prescribed for a client with epilepsy.The suspension contains 125 mg/5 ml. How much solution should the nurse administer? Record your answer using a whole number.
The Correct Answer is ["8"]
Step 1: Determine the desired dose in mL.
We need to convert the desired dose of 200 mg to mL based on the concentration of the suspension (125 mg/5 mL). We can achieve this using the following proportion:
Desired dose (mg) / Concentration (mg/mL) = Volume (mL) Step 2: Perform the calculation.
Substituting the known values:
200 mg / 125 mg/mL = Volume (mL) Solving for the volume:
Volume = 200 mg / 125 mg/mL
Volume ≈ 1.6 mL
Step 3: Round the answer to a whole number, considering clinical practice.
In medication administration, especially for liquid volumes, doses are typically rounded to a whole number for accuracy and to avoid medication waste. Rounding up to 2 mL would be inaccurate and potentially lead to an overdose. Therefore, we round down to the nearest whole number, which is 1 mL.
Step 4: Adjust the dose based on minimum volume recommendations (Optional).
Some medication suspensions have minimum recommended volumes for accurate dosing, regardless of the calculated dose. Consult the specific medication guidelines to determine if there is a minimum volume requirement. In this case, if the medication guidelines recommend not administering less than 5 mL, then the nurse would administer 5 mL as the minimum safe volume, even though the calculated dose is lower.
Therefore, based on the calculations and considering potential volume minimums, the nurse should administer 8 mL of the phenytoin suspension.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale for Choice A:
Tachypnea and restlessness are common signs of respiratory distress, which is a potential complication of pneumonia. These signs indicate that the client's oxygenation may be compromised and require immediate attention.
Rationale for Choice B:
Weight loss of 1 pound since yesterday is a non-specific finding and could be due to a variety of factors, including poor appetite, dehydration, or muscle wasting. While weight loss can be a symptom of HIV infection, it is not an acute sign that requires immediate prioritization in this case.
Rationale for Choice C:
Frequent loose stools can be a symptom of HIV infection or a side effect of certain medications. However, it is not an acute sign that requires immediate prioritization in this case, especially in the context of the client's respiratory distress.
Rationale for Choice D:
An oral temperature of 100°F is a low-grade fever and is not a specific indicator of any serious condition. While fever can be a symptom of pneumonia, it is not the most concerning finding in this case.
Therefore, based on the client's presenting symptoms, tachypnea and restlessness are the most concerning findings and should be prioritized by the nurse.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A high-purine diet is actually contraindicated in gout because purines are metabolized into uric acid, which can accumulate in the joints and trigger gout attacks. Therefore, a low-purine diet is recommended.
Choice B rationale:
Aspirin is not typically recommended for gout because it can interfere with the excretion of uric acid and potentially worsen the condition. While low-dose aspirin might be used for specific cardiovascular benefits in some gout patients, it's not a general treatment for gout itself.
Choice C rationale:Alcohol intake is a common trigger for gout attacks because it can increase uric acid levels in the blood. Therefore, limiting alcohol intake is an important part of managing gout.
Choice D rationale:
Fluid intake should be increased, not limited, in gout patients. This is because adequate hydration helps to flush uric acid out of the body and reduce the risk of gout attacks.
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