Read the client scenario and answer question.
COPD patient's chart - Nurse's Note (0800) 84-year-old male client with a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (emphysema) history is admitted to the inpatient Med surge unit provider today. Upon admission, the client reports unusual increased shortness of breath and fatigue. The client is on 1 liter of oxygen via a nasal cannula; 02 saturation is 93%. The client's respiratory rate is 30 bpm with accessory muscle use, heart rate is 125 bpm, and blood pressure is 127/89 mmHg. The client has a barrel chest and extremities. On call provided paged, pending call back.
Identify listed assessment findings as expected or findings that need to be reported to the provider. Select only one answer per finding.
Barrel chest
Increased fatigue
Respiratory rate 40bpm
Thin appearance
The Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A"}}
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Assessment findings
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Expected Findings
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Findings to be reported to provider
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Barrel chest
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✔️ |
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Increased fatigue |
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✔️ |
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Respiratory rate 40bpm
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✔️ |
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Thin appearance
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✔️ |
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Barrel chest: Expected Finding
Increased fatigue: Finding to be reported to the provider
Respiratory rate 40 bpm: Finding to be reported to the provider
Thin appearance: Expected Finding
Rationales:
Barrel chest – Expected Finding:
A barrel chest is a common physical finding in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), especially emphysema. It results from hyperinflation of the lungs over time, altering the shape of the chest wall.
Increased fatigue – Finding to be reported to the provider:
While COPD clients often experience fatigue, a sudden or unusual increase in fatigue may indicate worsening respiratory function or exacerbation of the disease. This finding requires further assessment and possible intervention to prevent complications.
Respiratory rate 40 bpm – Finding to be reported to the provider:
A respiratory rate of 40 bpm indicates significant tachypnea and respiratory distress. This finding, coupled with accessory muscle use, suggests the client may be experiencing an acute exacerbation of COPD or impending respiratory failure, which requires immediate provider notification.
Thin appearance – Expected Finding:
Clients with COPD often have a thin or cachectic appearance due to increased energy expenditure for breathing and reduced caloric intake. This is a typical finding in advanced COPD and does not require urgent reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Spironolactone:
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in the treatment of heart failure. Unlike other diuretics, spironolactone works by antagonizing aldosterone, a hormone that promotes sodium and water retention and potassium excretion. By blocking aldosterone's action, spironolactone prevents the kidneys from excreting potassium, thus increasing potassium levels in the blood (hyperkalemia). Additionally, spironolactone can lead to hyponatremia (low sodium levels), as it also causes the kidneys to retain sodium and water, diluting sodium levels in the blood.
B) Furosemide:
Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is typically used in heart failure to remove excess fluid. It works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium, chloride, and potassium in the loop of Henle, which increases urine output. While furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to the increased excretion of potassium, it does not typically cause hyperkalemia.
C) Hydrochlorothiazide:
Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic, which works by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney, leading to increased urine production. Thiazide diuretics can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) and hyponatremia (low sodium levels) due to the enhanced excretion of both electrolytes.
D) Metolazone:
Metolazone is also a thiazide-like diuretic that works similarly to hydrochlorothiazide. It can cause hypokalemia and hyponatremia, but like hydrochlorothiazide, it does not typically cause hyperkalemia. Metolazone is more potent than hydrochlorothiazide but still does not carry the risk of hyperkalemia like spironolactone does.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Prepare for defibrillation: Defibrillation is the priority intervention for ventricular fibrillation, as it is the most effective treatment to terminate this life-threatening arrhythmia. Rapid defibrillation can restore a perfusing rhythm, which is critical for survival in a client who is unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic.
B. Atropine administration: Atropine is used to treat bradycardia or asystole but is not effective for ventricular fibrillation. In this scenario, defibrillation takes precedence over medication administration to restore a normal heart rhythm.
C. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion: Synchronized cardioversion is used for certain tachyarrhythmias when the client has a pulse. Ventricular fibrillation requires immediate unsynchronized defibrillation because the client is pulseless and unresponsive.
D. Amiodarone administration: Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic drug that can be used after defibrillation and chest compressions to stabilize the heart rhythm. However, it is not the initial action in this emergency; defibrillation must occur first to terminate the arrhythmia and restore circulation.
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