Regular insulin is considered:

Long-acting

Rapid-acting

Intermediate-acting

Short-acting

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Long-acting insulins, like glargine, provide basal coverage over 24 hours with no peak. Regular insulin has a shorter duration (6-8 hours) and peak (2-4 hours), making it unsuitable for basal control. Its rapid onset classifies it as short-acting, not long-acting, for managing postprandial glucose spikes in diabetes.

Choice B reason: Rapid-acting insulins, like aspart, have an onset of 10-15 minutes and peak at 1-2 hours. Regular insulin has a slower onset (30-60 minutes) and longer duration (6-8 hours), making it short-acting, not rapid-acting. This distinction is critical for timing insulin administration in diabetes management.

Choice C reason: Intermediate-acting insulins, like NPH, have an onset of 1-2 hours and duration of 12-18 hours. Regular insulin’s shorter duration (6-8 hours) and peak (2-4 hours) classify it as short-acting, used for prandial coverage, not intermediate basal control, making this an incorrect classification.

Choice D reason: Regular insulin is short-acting, with an onset of 30-60 minutes, peak at 2-4 hours, and duration of 6-8 hours. It effectively controls postprandial glucose spikes in diabetes by mimicking physiological insulin release. This classification guides its use in meal-time dosing, making it the correct choice.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Nephrotic syndrome causes massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema due to reduced oncotic pressure. Steroids, like prednisone, reduce glomerular inflammation, decrease protein leakage, and restore oncotic pressure, alleviating edema. By targeting the underlying immune-mediated damage, steroids effectively reduce fluid retention, making them the primary medication class for managing edema in this condition.

Choice B reason: Antibiotics treat bacterial infections, which nephrotic syndrome patients are prone to due to immunoglobulin loss, but they do not address edema. Edema results from hypoalbuminemia, not infection. Antibiotics are used for complications like peritonitis, not for reducing fluid retention, making them ineffective for the primary management of nephrotic syndrome edema.

Choice C reason: Fungicides treat fungal infections, which are rare in nephrotic syndrome unless immunocompromised from prolonged steroid use. Edema in nephrotic syndrome stems from proteinuria and low albumin, not fungal pathology. Fungicides have no role in reducing fluid retention, making them irrelevant for addressing the primary pathophysiological mechanism of edema.

Choice D reason: Analgesics relieve pain, which is not a primary feature of nephrotic syndrome. Edema results from hypoalbuminemia, causing fluid shifts into interstitial spaces. Pain management does not address this mechanism or reduce fluid retention. Steroids target the root cause, making analgesics inappropriate for managing edema in nephrotic syndrome.

A. Mucus in stools B. Increased appetite C. Jaundice D. Drooling

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Intussusception causes bowel obstruction, leading to mucus in stools, often mixed with blood (“currant jelly” stools) due to mucosal irritation and ischemia. This results from the telescoping of intestinal segments, impairing blood flow and causing tissue damage, making mucus a hallmark sign expected in a toddler with this condition.

Choice B reason: Increased appetite is unlikely in intussusception, as bowel obstruction causes pain, vomiting, and reduced intestinal function, leading to anorexia. The toddler’s discomfort and nausea from ischemia and obstruction suppress appetite, making this an incorrect manifestation compared to mucus, which directly reflects the intestinal pathology.

Choice C reason: Jaundice results from bilirubin accumulation, typically in liver or biliary disorders, not intussusception. This condition affects the intestines, causing obstruction and mucosal bleeding, not hepatic dysfunction. Mucus in stools is a direct consequence of intussusception, making jaundice an unrelated and incorrect expected finding.

Choice D reason: Drooling is associated with upper airway or esophageal issues, like tracheoesophageal fistula, not intussusception. This intestinal condition causes abdominal symptoms like mucus in stools, not salivary pooling. Drooling is irrelevant to the pathophysiology of bowel obstruction, making it an incorrect manifestation for this toddler.

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Regular insulin is considered:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse planning care for a child with nephrotic syndrome knows the classification of medication used to reduce edema in nephrotic syndrome is:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a toddler who has intussusception. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

What nursing action would be avoided when caring for a child diagnosed with Wilms’ tumor?

A hospitalized child has varicella. The nurse arranges for which type of infection precautions?

Which finding in a newborn is suggestive of tracheoesophageal fistula?

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a group of parents about malignant renal and intra-abdominal cancers of childhood. The nurse should include that which of the following cancers is the most common malignant renal and intra-abdominal tumor of childhood?

A nurse is caring for a child who has acute diarrhea and reports that he is thirsty. Which of the following fluids should the nurse give the child?

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