Robert, a 52-year-old male, comes to the ED with difficulty swallowing, a muffled voice, and facial swelling. His temperature is 102°F, and his WBC count is elevated. Past medical history includes recurrent strep throat infections, for which he's been noncompliant with antibiotics. What are the immediate nursing interventions for Robert who is suspected to have a peritonsillar abscess?
Initiate IV antibiotics.
Prepare the patient for incision and drainage (I&D)
Administer acetaminophen for fever.
Monitor airway patency continuously.
Correct Answer : A,B,D
A. Initiation of IV antibiotics is appropriate to treat the infection.
B. Preparation for incision and drainage (I&D) is the immediate nursing intervention to relieve pressure, decrease the risk of airway compromise, and promote resolution of the abscess.
C. Administering acetaminophen for fever is appropriate for symptomatic relief but is not the most immediate intervention for a suspected peritonsillar abscess.
D. Continuous monitoring of airway patency is crucial due to the risk of airway compromise from the abscess.
E. While obtaining blood for culture and sensitivity is important for determining appropriate antibiotic
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
A. Steroid creams can suppress the immune response and alter the results of patch testing, so it's important for Sarah to avoid using them before undergoing the test.
B. Antihistamines can interfere with skin reactions and affect the accuracy of patch test results, so Sarah should avoid taking them before the test.
C. Drinking water does not interfere with patch testing, and Sarah should stay hydrated before the procedure.
D. Eating food does not interfere with patch testing, and Sarah can eat normally before the procedure.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Right intracerebral hemorrhage typically causes symptoms on the opposite side of the body (left-sided hemiparesis) and a dilated ipsilateral (right) pupil due to pressure on the oculomotor nerve.
B. Right intracerebral hemorrhage typically results in left-sided hemiparesis due to damage to the motor pathways on the right side of the brain, along with a dilated right pupil due to compression of the ipsilateral (right) oculomotor nerve.
C. Bilateral handgrip strength being equal suggests no focal motor deficits, which would be unusual in the context of an intracerebral hemorrhage. Reactive pupils would not be expected in this scenario.
D. Pinpoint pupils are typically associated with opioid overdose or pontine lesions, not intracerebral hemorrhage.
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