The blood pressure (BP) of a 71-year-old patient admitted with pneumonia is 160/70 mm Hg. Which age-related change contributes to this finding?

Stenosis of the heart valves.

Decreased adrenergic sensitivity.

Increased parasympathetic activity.

Loss of elasticity in arterial vessels.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale:

Stenosis of the heart valves typically leads to murmurs and changes in heart sounds but does not directly impact blood pressure regulation.

Choice B rationale:

Decreased adrenergic sensitivity might lead to lower heart rate and blood pressure, not an increase in systolic blood pressure as seen in this case.

Choice C rationale:

Increased parasympathetic activity would lead to decreased heart rate, not an increase in systolic blood pressure as observed in the patient.

Choice D rationale:

Loss of elasticity in arterial vessels is the correct answer. With aging, arterial walls become less flexible and more rigid due to the accumulation of calcium and collagen. This loss of elasticity results in increased systolic blood pressure, which is the top number in a blood pressure reading. The diastolic pressure, represented by the bottom number, does not usually increase significantly with age. This change is a result of arteriosclerosis, which commonly occurs in elderly individuals.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

A low level of hepcidin would not cause a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Hepcidin regulates iron homeostasis by inhibiting the absorption of iron from the intestines and promoting its storage in cells.

Choice B rationale:

An increase in iron-binding capacity typically occurs in conditions like iron deficiency anemia, where the body tries to increase its capacity to transport iron. This would not cause a low hemoglobin level in an otherwise healthy individual.

Choice C rationale:

Aging often leads to a decrease in the efficiency of nutrient absorption, including iron. This decrease in intestinal absorption of iron can result in low hemoglobin levels in elderly individuals. It's a common cause of anemia in the elderly population.

Choice D rationale:

Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidneys that stimulates the production of red blood cells. A decrease in erythropoietin secretion from the kidneys would lead to anemia, but it is not a typical effect of aging and is usually associated with kidney disease.

A. Take enteric-coated iron with each meal. B. Take cobalamin with green, leafy vegetables. C. Take the iron with orange juice 1 hour before meals. D. Decrease the intake of the antiseizure medications to improve anemia.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Enteric-coated iron is designed to be absorbed in the small intestine, not the stomach. Taking it with each meal might decrease its absorption due to interaction with food.

Choice B rationale:

Cobalamin (vitamin B12) deficiency can cause macrocytic anemia, not microcytic hypochromic anemia. Taking cobalamin with green, leafy vegetables does not address the specific iron deficiency seen in microcytic hypochromic anemia.

Choice C rationale:

Take the iron with orange juice 1 hour before meals is the correct answer. Vitamin C enhances the absorption of non-heme iron (the type of iron found in plant-based foods and iron supplements) by reducing it to a more absorbable form. Taking iron supplements with orange juice, which is high in vitamin C, can significantly improve iron absorption. Taking it before meals ensures better absorption due to reduced interaction with other dietary components.

Choice D rationale:

Decreasing the intake of antiseizure medications will not improve microcytic hypochromic anemia. Antiseizure medications do not directly influence iron absorption or the production of red blood cells.

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The blood pressure (BP) of a 71-year-old patient admitted with pneumonia is 160/70 mm Hg. Which age-related change contributes to this finding?

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