Which rationale supports the nurse's assessment of a patient's magnesium level?

The electrolyte is the most abundant intracellular cation present in the body.

The electrolyte may cause extracellular fluid overload.

Magnesium may affect neuromuscular excitability and contractility.

The patient is at risk for hypotension when the levels of magnesium decrease.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale:

While magnesium is indeed the most abundant intracellular cation in the body, this fact alone does not explain why the nurse would assess the patient's magnesium level.

Choice B rationale:

Magnesium imbalance can cause issues in the extracellular fluid compartment, but this choice does not explain why the nurse would specifically assess the patient's magnesium level.

Choice D rationale:

While hypotension can be a symptom of severe magnesium deficiency, this choice does not provide a rationale for assessing the patient's magnesium level. In this case, choice C is correct because magnesium plays a crucial role in neuromuscular excitability and contractility. Abnormal magnesium levels can lead to neuromuscular symptoms such as muscle weakness, tremors, and spasms. Additionally, magnesium is involved in cardiac muscle function, and low magnesium levels can lead to arrhythmias and other cardiac issues. Therefore, assessing the patient's magnesium level is essential in understanding their neuromuscular and cardiac health.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Silent ischemia refers to a lack of oxygen to the heart that doesn't cause symptoms like chest pain. It is often diagnosed during an electrocardiogram (ECG) done for other reasons. The patient in this scenario is experiencing chest pain, so silent ischemia is not the correct choice.

Choice B rationale:

Angina decubitus refers to chest pain that occurs while lying down and is relieved by standing or sitting. The patient in this scenario is experiencing chest pain at rest, which is not characteristic of angina decubitus.

Choice D rationale:

Chronic stable angina is chest pain or discomfort that typically occurs with activity or stress and is relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. The patient in this scenario is experiencing chest pain at rest, which is not characteristic of chronic stable angina.

A. Triple-drug therapy. B. IV therapy. C. Quadruple-drug therapy. D. Cobalamin replacement therapy.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
Triple-drug therapy is not the standard treatment for pernicious anemia after a gastrectomy. Pernicious anemia is primarily caused by vitamin B12 deficiency due to the absence of intrinsic factor, which is essential for vitamin B12 absorption.
Choice B rationale:
IV therapy is a broad term and does not specify the treatment for pernicious anemia. In the context of pernicious anemia, cobalamin replacement therapy administered via intramuscular injections is the preferred treatment.
Choice C rationale:
Quadruple-drug therapy is not a recognized treatment for pernicious anemia. The primary treatment for pernicious anemia involves cobalamin replacement therapy to address the vitamin B12 deficiency.
Choice D rationale:
Cobalamin replacement therapy is the appropriate treatment for pernicious anemia after a gastrectomy. Since the patient lacks intrinsic factor, which is necessary for vitamin B12 absorption, cobalamin replacement therapy bypasses the need for intrinsic factor and provides the necessary vitamin B12 directly.

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Which rationale supports the nurse's assessment of a patient's magnesium level?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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