The charge nurse asks the practical nurse (PN) to administer diphenhydramine 25 mg IM to a client prior to infusing a blood transfusion. Which explanation should the PN offer the client about the purpose of this drug?

Facilitate rapid infusion of the transfusion

Inhibit the antigen-antibody reaction

Promote relaxation of the client during the blood transfusion

Minimize symptoms related to any allergic reaction

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Diphenhydramine does not facilitate rapid transfusion. It is an antihistamine used to prevent allergic reactions during transfusions, not to alter infusion speed. Rapid infusion depends on clinical protocols and patient tolerance, not antihistamine effects, making this choice incorrect.

Choice B reason: Diphenhydramine does not inhibit antigen-antibody reactions, which occur in transfusion mismatches. It mitigates histamine-mediated allergic symptoms, like itching or hives, but does not prevent immunological reactions. This choice is incorrect, as it misrepresents the drug’s role in symptom management.

Choice C reason: While diphenhydramine may cause sedation, its primary purpose before transfusion is to prevent allergic reactions, not to promote relaxation. Relaxation is a secondary effect, not the clinical rationale for its use, making this choice less accurate than allergy prevention.

Choice D reason: Diphenhydramine, an antihistamine, minimizes allergic reaction symptoms, such as itching or hives, during blood transfusions by blocking histamine receptors. This premedication reduces the risk of mild transfusion-related allergic responses, ensuring patient comfort and safety, making it the correct explanation.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Stopping disulfiram for nausea or vomiting is incorrect, as these are expected in alcohol reactions, not side effects warranting discontinuation. Disulfiram inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase, causing acetaldehyde buildup if alcohol is consumed, leading to these symptoms, which reinforce alcohol avoidance.

Choice B reason: Avoiding all alcohol, including in cough syrups, is critical, as disulfiram causes severe reactions (flushing, nausea) by blocking acetaldehyde metabolism. Even small amounts trigger symptoms, reinforcing abstinence in alcohol dependence treatment, making this the most important instruction for safety and efficacy.

Choice C reason: Taking disulfiram at the same time daily promotes adherence but is less critical than avoiding alcohol, which directly prevents severe reactions. Consistency aids therapeutic levels, but alcohol exposure poses immediate health risks, making this instruction secondary.

Choice D reason: Weekly blood tests are not standard for disulfiram, as therapeutic levels are not routinely monitored, and sodium is unaffected. Liver function may be checked periodically, but alcohol avoidance is the priority to prevent acute reactions, making this choice incorrect.

A. Contact the healthcare provider B. Monitor the client for a rash or hives C. Give with prescribed antihistamine D. Administer the medication as prescribed

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Cephalexin, a cephalosporin, has a 5–10% cross-reactivity risk with penicillin allergies due to similar beta-lactam structures. An anaphylactic history increases the risk of severe reactions. Contacting the provider ensures safety, potentially leading to an alternative antibiotic to prevent life-threatening allergic responses.

Choice B reason: Monitoring for rash or hives is reactive and insufficient for a client with a penicillin anaphylaxis history. Cephalexin’s cross-reactivity risk requires proactive avoidance, not just observation, as anaphylaxis can occur rapidly, making this choice inadequate compared to provider consultation.

Choice C reason: Giving cephalexin with an antihistamine does not prevent anaphylaxis, which can be rapid and severe in penicillin-allergic clients. Antihistamines mitigate mild allergies but are ineffective against severe reactions. This choice is unsafe without confirming the drug’s appropriateness first.

Choice D reason: Administering cephalexin as prescribed ignores the significant risk of cross-reactivity with penicillin, given the client’s anaphylactic history. This could trigger a life-threatening reaction, as cephalosporins share structural similarities with penicillins, making immediate administration without verification dangerous.

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The charge nurse asks the practical nurse (PN) to administer diphenhydramine 25 mg IM to a client prior to infusing a blood transfusion. Which explanation should the PN offer the client about the purpose of this drug?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The practical nurse (PN) is reviewing the discharge medication instructions with a client for disulfiram. Which instruction should the PN reinforce with the client?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client with a history of anaphylactic reaction to penicillin receives a prescription for cephalexin 500 mg by mouth twice daily. Which action should the practical nurse (PN) take?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client with emphysema who is receiving a bronchodilator reports to the practical nurse (PN) feelings of jitters and dry mouth. Which finding should the PN record as a measure of the medication’s effectiveness?

The practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is receiving a prescription for rivaroxaban. Which assessment finding should the PN associate as an adverse effect of this medication and report immediately?

The practical nurse (PN) is assisting with the plan of care (POC) for a client with costochondritis who is now experiencing increased discomfort in breathing. The client receives a prescription for meloxicam. Which intervention should the PN include in the client’s POC?

A client receives a prescription for intravenous (IV) famotidine. Which finding indicates to the practical nurse (PN) the medication is effective?

The practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client with costochondritis who is now experiencing increased discomfort in breathing. The client receives a prescription for meloxicam. Which intervention should the PN include in the client’s POC?

Sublingual nitroglycerin is prescribed PRN for an older adult female client with a history of chest pain. The client shows the practical nurse (PN) a plastic pill box that she purchased so the medication can always be readily available in her purse. Which action should the PN take?

A client with overactive bladder starts a new prescription for oxybutynin. When assessing the client prior to medication administration, which finding should the practical nurse (PN) report to the charge nurse?

A client who is taking sildenafil 50 mg PO PRN reports experiencing visual changes to the practical nurse (PN). Which instruction should the PN give to the client?