The charge nurse asks the practical nurse (PN) to administer diphenhydramine 25 mg IM to a client prior to infusing a blood transfusion. Which explanation should the PN offer the client about the purpose of this drug?

Facilitate rapid infusion of the transfusion

Inhibit the antigen-antibody reaction

Promote relaxation of the client during the blood transfusion

Minimize symptoms related to any allergic reaction

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Diphenhydramine does not facilitate rapid transfusion. It is an antihistamine used to prevent allergic reactions during transfusions, not to alter infusion speed. Rapid infusion depends on clinical protocols and patient tolerance, not antihistamine effects, making this choice incorrect.

Choice B reason: Diphenhydramine does not inhibit antigen-antibody reactions, which occur in transfusion mismatches. It mitigates histamine-mediated allergic symptoms, like itching or hives, but does not prevent immunological reactions. This choice is incorrect, as it misrepresents the drug’s role in symptom management.

Choice C reason: While diphenhydramine may cause sedation, its primary purpose before transfusion is to prevent allergic reactions, not to promote relaxation. Relaxation is a secondary effect, not the clinical rationale for its use, making this choice less accurate than allergy prevention.

Choice D reason: Diphenhydramine, an antihistamine, minimizes allergic reaction symptoms, such as itching or hives, during blood transfusions by blocking histamine receptors. This premedication reduces the risk of mild transfusion-related allergic responses, ensuring patient comfort and safety, making it the correct explanation.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Tetracycline causes photosensitivity, increasing UV-induced skin damage risk due to its accumulation in skin cells, triggering photochemical reactions. Protecting skin with sunblock or clothing prevents severe sunburn or rash, making this critical instruction for safe use during chlamydia treatment.

Choice B reason: Taking tetracycline with meals or milk reduces absorption, as calcium and magnesium bind the drug, forming insoluble complexes. This decreases efficacy, making it incorrect. Tetracycline should be taken on an empty stomach to ensure optimal bioavailability for infection treatment.

Choice C reason: Grapefruit juice affects drugs metabolized by CYP3A4, not tetracycline, which is not significantly influenced by this enzyme. This instruction is irrelevant, as tetracycline’s pharmacokinetics are unaffected by grapefruit, making it unnecessary for managing chlamydia treatment.

Choice D reason: Wearing tampons during menses is unrelated to tetracycline use. The drug treats bacterial infections, not menstrual management, and has no gynecological implications requiring tampon use. This choice is irrelevant to the medication’s administration or side effect profile.

A. Ensure peak and trough serum levels are collected with the third medication dose B. Reassess the client’s pain 30 minutes after medication administration C. Observe the client daily for involuntary movements of the lips and tongue D. Initiate strict intake and output measurements and record every shift

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Peak and trough levels are relevant for drugs like vancomycin, not meloxicam, an NSAID. Meloxicam’s efficacy is assessed clinically via pain reduction, not blood levels, as it inhibits inflammation-causing prostaglandins, making this choice irrelevant for costochondritis management.

Choice B reason: Reassessing pain 30 minutes after meloxicam administration evaluates its effectiveness, as this NSAID reduces cyclooxygenase activity, decreasing prostaglandin-mediated pain and inflammation in costochondritis. Timely reassessment ensures adequate relief, guiding further interventions for breathing discomfort, making this the appropriate intervention.

Choice C reason: Involuntary lip and tongue movements are linked to antipsychotics causing tardive dyskinesia, not meloxicam. This NSAID does not affect neurological pathways causing movement disorders. Monitoring for this is irrelevant, as meloxicam’s primary risks are gastrointestinal, not neurological.

Choice D reason: Strict intake and output monitoring is unnecessary for meloxicam, which targets inflammation, not fluid balance. While long-term use may affect renal function, pain reassessment is more immediate for costochondritis, making this choice less relevant than evaluating therapeutic pain relief.

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The charge nurse asks the practical nurse (PN) to administer diphenhydramine 25 mg IM to a client prior to infusing a blood transfusion. Which explanation should the PN offer the client about the purpose of this drug?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client is receiving tetracycline for chlamydia urethritis. The practical nurse (PN) should reinforce which instruction?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client with costochondritis who is now experiencing increased discomfort in breathing. The client receives a prescription for meloxicam. Which intervention should the PN include in the client’s POC?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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