The client is a 27-year-old male who had an exploratory laparotomy 8 days ago following a gunshot wound to the abdomen. The surgeons evacuated a large amount of blood in the peritoneum and repaired a liver laceration. The client was in the intensive care unit (ICU) for 4 days and in the surgical floor for 4 days. He started a regular diet 3 days ago but is now refusing to eat and has had several episodes of vomiting in the past 3 hours. Which action should the nurse take?
Test for Helicobacter pylori
Give intravenous fluids
Insert a rectal tube
Monitor hemoglobin
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Testing for Helicobacter pylori is irrelevant, as vomiting and anorexia 8 days post-laparotomy suggest postoperative complications like ileus or obstruction, not peptic ulcer disease. H. pylori causes gastritis, not acute surgical issues, making this action inappropriate for the client’s current presentation.
Choice B reason: Giving intravenous fluids is critical, as vomiting and refusal to eat post-laparotomy risk dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Fluids restore volume, stabilize hemodynamics, and support recovery from potential ileus or obstruction, addressing the client’s acute symptoms and preventing further deterioration.
Choice C reason: Inserting a rectal tube is inappropriate, as vomiting indicates upper gastrointestinal issues, not lower bowel obstruction. Post-laparotomy vomiting suggests ileus or adhesion, and rectal tubes do not address gastric or small bowel complications, making this action ineffective.
Choice D reason: Monitoring hemoglobin assesses blood loss, relevant post-laparotomy, but vomiting and anorexia prioritize fluid replacement to prevent dehydration. Hemoglobin checks are secondary, as fluid loss is the immediate threat, making IV fluids the more urgent intervention for stabilization.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: A heart rate of 120 beats/minute requires immediate intervention, as albuterol, a beta-agonist, stimulates cardiac beta-1 receptors, causing tachycardia. In emphysema, repeated dosing increases cardiovascular stress, risking arrhythmias or ischemia, necessitating evaluation to adjust therapy or address potential overdose effects.
Choice B reason: Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute is elevated but expected in emphysema with dyspnea. Albuterol aims to reduce bronchospasm, and this rate does not indicate immediate danger compared to tachycardia, which poses a cardiovascular risk, making it less urgent.
Choice C reason: Oxygen saturation of 90% is low but common in emphysema exacerbations. Albuterol improves airflow, and supplemental oxygen may address hypoxia. While concerning, this is less immediately life-threatening than tachycardia, which indicates potential albuterol toxicity, requiring urgent intervention.
Choice D reason: Peak expiratory flow at 60% reflects airflow limitation in emphysema, improved by albuterol. While low, it is not as urgent as tachycardia, which signals cardiovascular strain from repeated albuterol doses, posing a greater immediate risk to the client’s stability.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Cell-mediated hypersensitivity (Type IV) involves T-cells, causing delayed reactions like contact dermatitis, not acute symptoms like rash, hypotension, and dyspnea. Bee sting reactions are rapid, driven by IgE-mediated histamine release, making this immune mechanism incorrect for the client’s presentation.
Choice B reason: Autoimmune responses target self-antigens, as in lupus, not external allergens like bee venom. The client’s acute rash, hypotension, and respiratory distress indicate an allergic reaction, not autoimmunity, making this mechanism irrelevant to the anaphylactic response observed.
Choice C reason: IgE response hypersensitivity (Type I) causes anaphylaxis, as bee venom triggers IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation, releasing histamine. This leads to rash, hypotension, and bronchoconstriction, matching the client’s symptoms, making this the correct immune reaction for the acute, life-threatening presentation.
Choice D reason: Type II hypersensitivity involves antibody-mediated cytotoxicity, as in hemolytic anemia, not allergic reactions. Bee sting anaphylaxis results from IgE-driven histamine release, not cell destruction, making this mechanism incorrect for the client’s rapid-onset allergic symptoms.
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