The client suffered cardiac arrest, was resuscitated and has now been on a ventilator for several days.
The client had a written advance directive which the spouse brought from home.
The primary care provider (PCP) is encouraging the spouse to consent for placement of a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube, which is contrary to the client's advance directive.
After the PCP leaves, the spouse states, "I wish I knew what my spouse wanted.”. What is the best reply by the nurse?

Choice A rationale

Before delegating any nursing task, the nurse must first determine if the action is permissible under the state's nurse practice act and the employing agency's policies. These regulations define the scope of practice for nurses and the tasks that can be safely and legally delegated to unlicensed personnel. If delegation is not allowed by these governing bodies, the subsequent questions become irrelevant.

Choice B rationale

While it is crucial to ensure that the UAP has been adequately trained and is competent to perform the delegated task safely and correctly, this consideration comes after establishing the legality and permissibility of the delegation according to the nurse practice act and agency policy. Training is important for safe implementation but not the initial determining factor.

Choice C rationale

Appropriate supervision is necessary when delegating tasks to UAPs to ensure client safety and provide guidance. However, the ability to delegate the task itself must first be established by legal and policy guidelines. Supervision is a component of safe delegation but not the primary question determining if delegation is even an option.

Choice D rationale

Evaluating the client's past response to a treatment might inform how the task is performed or any specific observations needed, but it does not determine the fundamental question of whether the task can be delegated to a UAP in the first place. Legal and policy frameworks dictate the scope of delegation, regardless of the client's history. .

Choice A rationale

Impaired Skin Integrity involves damage to the epidermal and/or dermal layers of the skin. While excessive fluid loss can indirectly affect skin turgor and increase the risk of breakdown over time, the primary and immediate physiological consequence of increased urinary output due to a diuretic is a potential reduction in overall fluid volume within the body, not a direct impairment of skin integrity.

Choice B rationale

Impaired Urinary Elimination describes difficulties in controlling or completely emptying the bladder. A diuretic, by its mechanism of action, increases urine production and thus promotes urinary elimination. While the *pattern* of elimination may change (increased frequency, urgency), the fundamental issue is not an impairment of the elimination process itself but rather an *increase* in it.

Choice C rationale

Urinary Retention is the inability to empty the bladder completely. A diuretic works to increase urine output, directly counteracting the physiological process of urinary retention. Therefore, this nursing diagnosis would be inappropriate for a client experiencing increased urinary output due to diuretic use.

Choice D rationale

Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume is a nursing diagnosis that identifies a vulnerability to a decrease in intravascular, interstitial, and/or intracellular fluid, which may compromise health. A diuretic increases urinary output, leading to a greater loss of fluid from the body. Without adequate fluid intake to compensate for this increased loss, the client is at a significant risk of developing a fluid volume deficit.