The drug of choice for treatment of gonorrhea is:
ceftriaxone.
penicillin G.
acyclovir.
tetracycline.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin that is effective against Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the bacteria that causes gonorrhea. It is administered as a single intramuscular injection and has a high cure rate.
Choice B reason: Penicillin G is not the drug of choice for gonorrhea because of the widespread resistance of N. gonorrhoeae to this antibiotic. Penicillin G may be used in combination with other drugs for some cases of gonorrhea, but it is not the first-line treatment.
Choice C reason: Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that is used to treat herpes simplex virus infections, not bacterial infections like gonorrhea. Acyclovir has no effect on N. gonorrhoeae and is not indicated for gonorrhea treatment.
Choice D reason: Tetracycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that can be used to treat some bacterial infections, but it is not the drug of choice for gonorrhea. Tetracycline has a lower efficacy and a higher rate of adverse effects than ceftriaxone for gonorrhea treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is not the main reason, as the use of contraceptives for an extended time does not necessarily affect the fertility of a woman. Most contraceptives are reversible and do not cause permanent damage to the reproductive system. However, some contraceptives may take longer to wear off than others, and some may have side effects that can interfere with ovulation or implantation.
Choice B reason: This is the main reason, as the aging process can affect the ovaries and the quality and quantity of the eggs. As a woman ages, her ovarian reserve (the number of eggs in the ovaries) declines, and the eggs become more prone to chromosomal abnormalities. This can reduce the chances of conception and increase the risk of miscarriage or birth defects.
Choice C reason: This is not the main reason, as prepregnancy medical attention is not a prerequisite for achieving pregnancy. However, prepregnancy medical attention can be beneficial for a woman who is older than 35 years, as it can help identify and manage any existing or potential health problems that may affect the pregnancy, such as diabetes, hypertension, or thyroid disorders.
Choice D reason: This is not the main reason, as personal risk behaviors are not specific to a woman who is older than 35 years. Personal risk behaviors are factors that can negatively affect the fertility of any woman, regardless of age. Some examples of personal risk behaviors are smoking, drinking, using drugs, having multiple sexual partners, or having sexually transmitted infections.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: A miscarriage is defined as a spontaneous abortion of a fetus before the 20th week of gestation. It is a natural pregnancy loss that occurs before labor begins and is usually caused by chromosomal abnormalities, infections, or maternal health problems.
Choice B reason: A miscarriage is not often attributed to careless maternal behavior such as poor nutrition or excessive exercise. These factors may affect the quality of life of the mother and the fetus, but they are not the main causes of miscarriage. Most miscarriages are not preventable and are not the fault of the mother.
Choice C reason: A miscarriage that occurs before the 12th week of pregnancy may manifest only as moderate discomfort and blood loss, but this is not always the case. Some women may experience severe cramping, bleeding, and tissue passing from the vagina. Others may have no symptoms at all and only discover the miscarriage during a routine ultrasound.
Choice D reason: A miscarriage occurs in more than 5% of all clinically recognized pregnancies. The actual rate of miscarriage is estimated to be 10% to 20%, but many women may not realize they are pregnant or may not report the loss to their health care provider.
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