Which analysis of maternal serum may predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus?
Biophysical profile
Lecithin/sphingomyelin [L/S] ratio
Type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum
Multiple-marker screening
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Biophysical profile is a test that assesses the fetal well-being by measuring five parameters: fetal breathing movements, fetal movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal heart rate. It does not predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus.
Choice B reason: Lecithin/sphingomyelin [L/S] ratio is a test that measures the amount of two phospholipids in the amniotic fluid. It is used to evaluate the fetal lung maturity and the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. It does not predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus.
Choice C reason: Type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum is a test that determines the blood type and Rh factor of the mother and the fetus. It is used to identify the risk of hemolytic disease of the newborn due to Rh incompatibility. It does not predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus.
Choice D reason: Multiple-marker screening is a test that measures the levels of four substances in the maternal serum: alpha-fetoprotein, human chorionic gonadotropin, unconjugated estriol, and inhibin A. It is used to estimate the risk of Down syndrome, trisomy 18, and neural tube defects in the fetus.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Asking the woman to reschedule the appointment for the examination is not the best response, as it may delay the detection and treatment of any potential problems. The nurse should inform the woman about the possible effect of the vaginal cream on the Pap test and offer her the option to reschedule or proceed with the examination.
Choice B reason: Asking the woman to describe the symptoms that indicate to her that she has a vaginal infection is a good way to assess the woman's condition and provide education, but it is not the initial response. The nurse should first inform the woman about the possible effect of the vaginal cream on the Pap test and then ask her about her symptoms.
Choice C reason: Reassuring the woman that using vaginal cream is not a problem for the examination is not true, as vaginal creams can alter the pH of the vaginal environment and affect the accuracy of the Pap test. The nurse should inform the woman about the possible effect of the vaginal cream on the Pap test and explain the importance of avoiding vaginal creams, douches, or intercourse for 48 hours before the test.
Choice D reason: Informing the woman that vaginal creams may interfere with the Pap test for which she is scheduled is the best response, as it educates the woman about the purpose and procedure of the Pap test and allows her to make an informed decision about whether to reschedule or proceed with the examination. The nurse should also explain the risks and benefits of both options and respect the woman's choice.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Penicillin is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Penicillin is an antibiotic that works by inhibiting the cell wall synthesis of bacteria. However, chlamydia is an intracellular bacterium that does not have a cell wall and is resistant to penicillin.
Choice B reason: Acyclovir is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that works by inhibiting the DNA synthesis of viruses. However, chlamydia is a bacterium, not a virus, and is not affected by acyclovir².
Choice C reason: Doxycycline is the correct option, as it is one of the recommended medications for the treatment of chlamydia. Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that works by inhibiting the protein synthesis of bacteria. It can penetrate the cells and kill chlamydia by interfering with its growth and reproduction. The CDC recommends a 7-day course of doxycycline (100 mg orally twice a day) for the treatment of uncomplicated chlamydia infection.
Choice D reason: Podofilox is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Podofilox is a topical medication that works by destroying the tissue of genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). However, chlamydia is a different infection that does not cause genital warts and is not treated by podofilox.
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