The nurse is counseling a woman who wants to become pregnant. The woman tells the nurse that she has a 28-day menstrual cycle and the first day of her menstrual period was January 8. The nurse correctly calculates that the woman's next fertile period is?

February 6-7

January 22-23

January 30-31

January 14-15

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A: February 6-7 is incorrect. This is too late for the woman's fertile period, which occurs around the time of ovulation. Ovulation usually happens about 14 days before the next period starts, which would be around January 22 for a 28-day cycle¹.

Choice B: In a 28-day menstrual cycle, ovulation typically occurs around day 14 (counting from the first day of the last menstrual period). Since the first day of the last period is January 8, day 14 falls on January 22. The fertile window consists of the five days leading up to ovulation and the day of ovulation (January 17–22), as sperm can survive in the reproductive tract for up to 5 days, and the egg remains viable for about 24 hours after ovulation. January 22-23 is the most fertile period, with ovulation occurring around January 22 and the egg remaining viable for fertilization on January 23.

Choice C: January 30-31 is incorrect. This is after the woman's fertile period, which ends about a day after ovulation. Ovulation usually happens about 14 days before the next period starts, which would be around January 22 for a 28-day cycle.

Choice D: January 14-15 corresponds to cycle days 7-8, which is too early for ovulation in a typical 28-day cycle. Ovulation generally occurs around day 14 (January 22). The follicular phase (the first half of the cycle) is when the follicles in the ovary mature, and estrogen levels rise to trigger ovulation. At this point (January 14-15), the egg is not yet released, and the uterus is still preparing for ovulation, making conception unlikely.

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Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: Seizure activity and hypotension are not signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, but rather of eclampsia, which is a life-threatening complication of preeclampsia. Eclampsia is characterized by convulsions and coma, and it requires immediate treatment to prevent maternal and fetal death.

Choice B reason: Platelet count of less than 100,000/mm3 and visual problems are signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, as they indicate hematologic and neurologic complications. Severe preeclampsia can cause thrombocytopenia, which is a low platelet count that increases the risk of bleeding. It can also cause cerebral edema, which can impair the vision and cause blurred vision, spots, or flashes of light.

Choice C reason: Ankle clonus and epigastric pain are signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, as they indicate neuromuscular and hepatic complications. Severe preeclampsia can cause hyperreflexia, which is an exaggerated reflex response that can be elicited by dorsiflexing the ankle and observing rhythmic jerking of the foot. It can also cause liver damage, which can manifest as epigastric pain or right upper quadrant pain.

Choice D reason: Decreased urinary output and irritability are signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, as they indicate renal and central nervous system complications. Severe preeclampsia can cause oliguria, which is a reduced urine output of less than 500 mL in 24 hours. It can also cause increased intracranial pressure, which can affect the mood and behavior and cause irritability, anxiety, or confusion.

Choice E reason: Transient headache and +1 proteinuria are not signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, but rather of mild preeclampsia, which is a less severe form of the condition. Mild preeclampsia is characterized by blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg or higher, proteinuria of 1+ or higher, and mild edema. It does not cause severe complications or organ damage, but it can progress to severe preeclampsia if not treated.

A. infection. B. hemorrhage. C. urinary retention. D. thrombophlebitis.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Infection is not the greatest risk for a woman with marginal placenta previa, as it is not directly related to the condition. Marginal placenta previa is a type of placenta previa where the edge of the placenta is near the cervical os but does not cover it. It can cause painless bleeding during pregnancy or labor, but it does not increase the risk of infection.

Choice B reason: Hemorrhage is the greatest risk for a woman with marginal placenta previa, as it can occur due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall during labor or delivery. The bleeding can be profuse and life-threatening, and it requires prompt intervention and monitoring.

Choice C reason: Urinary retention is not the greatest risk for a woman with marginal placenta previa, as it is not directly related to the condition. Urinary retention is the inability to empty the bladder completely, and it can occur due to various factors such as anesthesia, trauma, or medication. It can cause discomfort, infection, or bladder distension, but it is not as serious as hemorrhage.

Choice D reason: Thrombophlebitis is not the greatest risk for a woman with marginal placenta previa, as it is not directly related to the condition. Thrombophlebitis is the inflammation of a vein due to a blood clot, and it can occur due to prolonged bed rest, dehydration, or injury. It can cause pain, swelling, or redness in the affected area, and it can lead to pulmonary embolism if the clot dislodges and travels to the lungs. However, it is not as common or as severe as hemorrhage.

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The nurse is counseling a woman who wants to become pregnant. The woman tells the nurse that she has a 28-day menstrual cycle and the first day of her menstrual period was January 8. The nurse correctly calculates that the woman's next fertile period is?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a woman who is at 24 weeks of gestation with suspected severe preeclampsia. Which signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]

Explanation

A woman diagnosed with marginal placenta previa gave birth vaginally 15 minutes ago. At the present time she is at the greatest risk for:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae (as opposed to placenta previa) is:

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A woman arrives at the clinic for her annual examination. She tells the nurse that she thinks she has a vaginal infection and has been using an over-the-counter cream for the past 2 days to treat it. The nurse's initial response should be to:

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Which factor is known to increase the risk of gestational diabetes mellitus?

What maternal condition always requires delivery by cesarean section?

A pregnant woman comes to the prenatal clinic for an initial visit. In reviewing her childbearing history, the client indicated that she has delivered premature twins, one full-term baby, and has had no abortions. Which GTPAL should the nurse document in this client's record?