The husband of a client with cervical carcinoma in situ says to the nurse, "The doctor just told my wife that her cancer is curable. Is the doctor just trying to make us feel better?" The nurse's most accurate response would be:

"Cancers of the reproductive tract are slow-growing and respond well to treatment."

"The 5-year survival rate is about 75%, so her odds are pretty good."

"When cervical cancer is detected early and treated aggressively, the cure rate is very high."

"Saying cancer is curable means that 50% of all women with cancer survive at least 5 years."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A.   While it is true that some cancers of the reproductive tract can be slow-growing and may respond well to treatment, this statement is overly generalized. It does not specifically address the prognosis or treatment success associated with cervical carcinoma in situ.
B.   This statement provides a statistic but may not accurately reflect the prognosis for cervical carcinoma in situ, which is typically higher than 75% when detected and treated early. This response could also imply that the survival rate for invasive cervical cancer is the same, which could lead to misunderstanding.
C.   Cervical carcinoma in situ is a pre-invasive stage of cervical cancer, and when it is detected early, the treatment is usually very effective, leading to a high cure rate. This statement reassures the husband that the prognosis is good, given that early detection and treatment are key factors.
D.   The term "curable" implies a much better prognosis than a mere 50% survival rate, which may refer to various cancers and does not specifically apply to cervical carcinoma in situ. This response does not provide the husband with the clarity he needs about his wife's condition.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Clopidogrel is not a pain medication; it is an antiplatelet agent used to reduce the risk of stroke and other cardiovascular events. It should be taken regularly, not on an as-needed basis.
B. Clopidogrel works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, which helps prevent the formation of blood clots that can lead to strokes. This understanding indicates that the client recognizes the purpose of the medication and its importance in managing their condition after a TIA.
C. Clopidogrel is not used to treat anxiety; it is primarily focused on reducing the risk of thrombotic events. This choice shows a misunderstanding of the medication's purpose.
D. Clopidogrel does not directly control blood pressure; it is used to prevent blood clots. While blood pressure management is essential in the context of stroke prevention, clopidogrel itself does not have a role in lowering blood pressure.

A. use a cold compress on both eyes. B. teach the client scanning techniques. C. apply an eye patch to the affected eye. D. use eye drops in both eyes daily

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Using a cold compress is typically employed for reducing swelling or discomfort, but it does not address the visual deficits associated with homonymous hemianopia. This intervention would not assist the client in compensating for their visual field loss.
B. Teaching scanning techniques involves training the client to actively search for visual information from their affected side. This can include turning their head and using their eyes to scan to the left (for right homonymous hemianopia) or to the right (for left homonymous hemianopia). This compensatory strategy is crucial for helping the client navigate their environment safely and effectively during rehabilitation.
C. Applying an eye patch is not appropriate for homonymous hemianopia, as it may further limit visual input. In fact, patching could exacerbate difficulties by reducing overall vision and is generally more relevant for conditions like amblyopia or for treating diplopia (double vision), rather than compensating for a visual field deficit.
D. Using eye drops is typically for treating dry eyes, redness, or other ocular conditions, and does not directly address the issues related to homonymous hemianopia. This intervention would not help the client learn to compensate for their visual field loss.

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The husband of a client with cervical carcinoma in situ says to the nurse, "The doctor just told my wife that her cancer is curable. Is the doctor just trying to make us feel better?" The nurse's most accurate response would be:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The client is diagnosed with a transient ischemic attack (TIA) and is prescribed clopidogrel. Which statement would indicate the medication education has been effective for this client? The client states, "Clopidogrel

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client diagnosed with a stroke is experiencing homonymous hemianopia. The most appropriate nursing intervention to help the client learn to compensate for this deficit during rehabilitation period would be to:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a male patient who complains about a small "lump" that he discovered in his right testicle. What would be the best response by the nurse?

The nurse is planning care for client who is recovering from a total abdominal hysterectomy for uterine cancer. The nurse would include which intervention to decrease the risk of an embolic event?

The nurse is assessing a post-op thyroidectomy patient for bleeding. Which finding would indicate bleeding at the surgical site?

The nurse is caring for a client with peripheral arterial disease. Which statement, by the client, indicates that they need additional teaching?

Which assessment data would indicate to the nurse that the client would be at risk for a hemorrhagic stroke?

A patient is ordered 20 unit/kg IV bolus of Heparin. The patient weighs 154 lbs. Heparin is supplied 25,000 units/250 mL. How many mL will the nurse administer? (round to the nearest whole number)

Which one of the following topics should the nurse include in a community health promotion seminar to illustrate ways to reduce the risk of cervical cancer?

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