The client is diagnosed with a transient ischemic attack (TIA) and is prescribed clopidogrel. Which statement would indicate the medication education has been effective for this client? The client states, "Clopidogrel
should be taken as needed for pain."
will help reduce the risk of stroke."
will decrease my symptoms of anxiety."
is ordered for blood pressure control."
The Correct Answer is B
A. Clopidogrel is not a pain medication; it is an antiplatelet agent used to reduce the risk of stroke and other cardiovascular events. It should be taken regularly, not on an as-needed basis.
B. Clopidogrel works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, which helps prevent the formation of blood clots that can lead to strokes. This understanding indicates that the client recognizes the purpose of the medication and its importance in managing their condition after a TIA.
C. Clopidogrel is not used to treat anxiety; it is primarily focused on reducing the risk of thrombotic events. This choice shows a misunderstanding of the medication's purpose.
D. Clopidogrel does not directly control blood pressure; it is used to prevent blood clots. While blood pressure management is essential in the context of stroke prevention, clopidogrel itself does not have a role in lowering blood pressure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. This is a significant finding that warrants immediate notification. Changes in mental status in elderly patients can indicate a variety of issues, including infection (such as a urinary tract infection), dehydration, or other acute illnesses. Given that elderly patients are at higher risk for delirium and other cognitive changes, this finding should be taken seriously.
B. These vital signs are largely within normal limits for an elderly patient. While the blood pressure is on the higher side, the heart rate and respiratory rate are within acceptable ranges. Therefore, this does not warrant immediate notification unless other symptoms are present.
C. This statement is reassuring and suggests that the client is not experiencing complications related to the indwelling catheter, such as infection or obstruction. It does not indicate any need for immediate notification of the provider.
D. Cloudy urine with sediment can be indicative of a urinary tract infection (UTI) or other complications related to the indwelling catheter. While this finding is concerning and may require further evaluation, it is not as urgent as a change in mental status. It should still be reported to the healthcare provider but may not necessitate immediate action.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Ascites is a condition where excess fluid accumulates in the abdominal cavity. It is a common finding in advanced-stage ovarian cancer as the cancer can spread to the abdominal organs and lymph nodes, leading to fluid buildup.
B. Chest pressure is not a typical symptom of advanced-stage ovarian cancer. It might be associated with other conditions, such as heart disease or lung problems.
C. Painful urination is not a common symptom of advanced-stage ovarian cancer. It might be associated with other conditions, such as urinary tract infections or bladder problems.
D. Excessive flatus is not a typical symptom of advanced-stage ovarian cancer. It might be associated with other gastrointestinal conditions.
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