The nurse assesses a client’s eyes by testing the cardinal fields of vision for coordination and alignment. Which eye characteristic is being assessed by this process?
Visual acuity
Extraocular movements
Peripheral vision
Existence of cataracts
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Visual acuity measures the clarity of vision, typically tested using a Snellen chart to assess retinal and optic nerve function. Testing cardinal fields of vision evaluates eye muscle coordination, not visual sharpness. This assessment involves cranial nerves III, IV, and VI, not the retina’s ability to resolve fine details, making it irrelevant here.
Choice B reason: Extraocular movements are assessed by testing the cardinal fields of vision, evaluating the coordinated movement of eyes in six directions. This tests cranial nerves III (oculomotor), IV (trochlear), and VI (abducens), which control eye muscles. Misalignment or uncoordinated movement may indicate neurological or muscular issues, making this the correct characteristic being assessed.
Choice C reason: Peripheral vision is tested using confrontation tests, assessing the visual field’s outer edges, mediated by retinal rod cells. Cardinal fields of vision testing focuses on eye muscle coordination, not the extent of the visual field. This assessment does not evaluate peripheral retinal function, making peripheral vision an incorrect choice for this procedure.
Choice D reason: Existence of cataracts is assessed via lens opacity examination, often using an ophthalmoscope. Cardinal fields of vision testing evaluates eye movement coordination, not lens clarity. Cataracts impair light transmission to the retina, but this test targets extraocular muscle function and cranial nerve integrity, making cataract assessment irrelevant to this procedure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Changes in a mole’s size or color indicate potential melanoma, a skin cancer from malignant melanocytes. These changes reflect uncontrolled cell growth, altering pigmentation or lesion size. The ABCDE criteria (Asymmetry, Border, Color, Diameter, Evolving) highlight evolving moles as concerning, requiring medical evaluation to detect early malignancy and improve prognosis through timely intervention.
Choice B reason: A mole larger than 6 mm (1/4 inch) is concerning per the ABCDE criteria for melanoma. Larger diameter suggests abnormal melanocyte proliferation, increasing malignancy risk. While not definitive, this size threshold prompts evaluation, as melanoma can invade deeper skin layers, necessitating early detection to prevent metastasis and ensure effective surgical or therapeutic intervention.
Choice C reason: Moles with irregular edges are concerning, as irregular borders in the ABCDE criteria suggest melanoma due to uneven melanocyte growth. The client’s statement that they are “nothing to worry about” is incorrect, as irregular edges indicate potential malignancy, requiring medical assessment to rule out cancerous changes in skin cell structure and growth patterns.
Choice D reason: Completely round moles are typically benign, as symmetry is a reassuring feature in the ABCDE criteria. The statement to get them checked is incorrect, as round, symmetrical moles without other concerning features (size, color change) are less likely to be malignant. Melanoma often presents with asymmetry, making this statement a misunderstanding of risk.
Choice E reason: Different colors in a mole, per the ABCDE criteria, are a warning sign for melanoma. Multiple colors (brown, black, red) indicate abnormal melanocyte activity, suggesting malignancy. This requires evaluation, as color variation reflects genetic mutations in skin cells, increasing the risk of aggressive cancer spread, making this statement correct for identifying potential melanoma.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Reduced skin turgor, a sign of fluid volume deficit, occurs due to decreased interstitial fluid, reducing skin elasticity. Dehydration from fluid loss impairs cellular hydration, slowing skin recoil. This is a key assessment finding, as it reflects low extracellular fluid volume, affecting tissue perfusion and requiring fluid replacement to restore homeostasis.
Choice B reason: Decreased blood pressure results from fluid volume deficit, reducing intravascular volume and cardiac output. Low fluid decreases venous return, triggering baroreceptors to signal sympathetic activation, though insufficient to maintain pressure. This is a critical sign, as it indicates compromised perfusion to organs, necessitating fluid resuscitation to restore hemodynamic stability.
Choice C reason: Increased urine output is incorrect, as fluid volume deficit reduces urine output due to decreased renal perfusion. The kidneys conserve fluid via antidiuretic hormone and renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system activation, concentrating urine. This sign does not correlate with dehydration, which typically presents with oliguria, making it an incorrect assessment finding.
Choice D reason: Increased heart rate (tachycardia) compensates for fluid volume deficit, as reduced blood volume lowers cardiac output. Sympathetic activation increases heart rate to maintain tissue perfusion despite low fluid. This is a key sign, reflecting the body’s attempt to compensate for hypovolemia, requiring fluid replacement to normalize cardiovascular function.
Choice E reason: Dry mouth and skin are classic signs of fluid volume deficit, as dehydration reduces salivary gland secretion and skin moisture. Low extracellular fluid impairs mucous membrane hydration and sweat production. These signs indicate systemic fluid loss, affecting cellular function and requiring documentation to guide fluid therapy for restoring hydration and tissue perfusion.
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