The nurse auscultates the precordium of a client who is diagnosed with mitral valve regurgitation and hears a grade IV systolic murmur. When documenting the comparison of systolic murmurs, which characteristics should the nurse use to support this systolic finding?
Loud, at the apex, associated with a palpable thrill.
Very loud, with no stethoscope, thrill easily palpable, heave visible.
Soft, barely heard on auscultation in a quiet room.
Moderately loud, machine-like rumble, not associated with a thrill.
The Correct Answer is A
A. A grade IV systolic murmur is considered loud and may be associated with a palpable thrill. In mitral valve regurgitation, the murmur is often best heard at the apex of the heart. A thrill, which is a vibration felt on the chest wall, is a sign of a more significant murmur. This description is consistent with a grade IV murmur, which is typically loud and may indeed be associated with a thrill.
B. Very loud, with no stethoscope, thrill easily palpable, heave visible.
B. A grade V systolic murmur is very loud and can be heard with the stethoscope barely touching the chest. It often comes with a palpable thrill and may be accompanied by a visible heave or lift of the
chest wall. This description is consistent with a grade V murmur, not grade IV. Therefore, it’s not the
correct description for a grade IV murmur.
C. A soft murmur, barely audible, describes a grade I or grade II systolic murmur. This does not match the characteristics of a grade IV murmur, which is louder and more easily heard. Therefore, this description does not support a grade IV murmur.
D. A moderately loud murmur, without a thrill, could describe a grade III murmur. Additionally, a "machine-like rumble" is more characteristic of a diastolic murmur, such as those heard in conditions like aortic regurgitation or mitral stenosis, rather than a systolic murmur associated with mitral valve regurgitation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"D"},"B":{"answers":"B"}}
Explanation
Wrist: Able to bend wrist back toward forearm
- Flexion: When the wrist bends back toward the forearm, it is an example of flexion. Flexion decreases the angle between the wrist and the forearm.
Elbow: Only able to straighten joint 30 degrees
- Extension: The ability to straighten the elbow is indicative of extension. In this case, the client is only able to straighten the elbow to 30 degrees, which reflects limited extension.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The numeric pain intensity scale is a direct and effective method to assess the level of pain a patient is experiencing. If a client is splinting their chest, it’s essential to evaluate their pain level to determine the severity and guide appropriate pain management strategies. This is likely the most relevant and immediate follow-up assessment in this scenario.
B. An apical-radial pulse deficit measures the difference between the apical pulse (heart rate auscultated at the apex of the heart) and the radial pulse (heart rate palpated at the wrist). This assessment is used to detect conditions such as atrial fibrillation or other arrhythmias and is not directly related to the client’s chest splinting. Therefore, it is not the most relevant follow-up assessment in this context.
C. The anteroposterior (AP) chest diameter assessment is used to evaluate conditions such as barrel chest, which can be associated with chronic respiratory conditions. While this measurement can be important for assessing chronic respiratory issues, it is not directly related to the immediate concern of chest splinting, which is more likely associated with acute pain or discomfort.
D. Measuring body temperature is important for assessing the presence of fever or infection, but it does not directly address the client’s immediate complaint of chest pain or discomfort. While an elevated temperature might be relevant if an infection is suspected, it is not the most direct or immediate follow- up assessment for the observed behavior of splinting the chest.
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