The nurse completes a focused assessment and history of a patient who is scheduled for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Which data shared by the patient would the nurse need to contact the provider?

Choice A reason: Notifying the health care provider of the patient's status is an important action, but not the first priority. The nurse should first assess the patient for any possible triggers of the autonomic dysreflexia, which is a life-threatening condition that occurs in patients with spinal cord injury above the level of T6. It is characterized by a sudden and severe increase in blood pressure, flushing, sweating, headache, and blurred vision.

Choice B reason: Assessing patient for tight clothing around the waist or a full bladder is the first priority action. These are common triggers of autonomic dysreflexia, which cause irritation or stimulation of the nerves below the level of injury. The nurse should remove any tight clothing, catheterize the patient if needed, or perform a bowel evacuation to relieve the pressure and prevent further complications.

Choice C reason: Reviewing the medication administration record for an antihypertensive order is a secondary action, after identifying and removing the trigger of autonomic dysreflexia. The nurse should administer the prescribed antihypertensive medication, such as nifedipine or nitroglycerin, to lower the blood pressure and prevent stroke, seizure, or cardiac arrest.

Choice D reason: Initiating oxygen via a nasal cannula and elevating patient's legs is not an appropriate action for a patient with autonomic dysreflexia. Oxygen therapy is not indicated for this condition, unless the patient has hypoxia or respiratory distress. Elevating the patient's legs can worsen the blood pressure by increasing the venous return and the cardiac output. The nurse should keep the patient in a sitting position to promote the blood flow to the lower extremities and reduce the blood pressure.

Choice A reason: Assessing the patient for potential visual deficits is not the primary purpose of evaluating pupillary response. Visual deficits may result from damage to the optic nerve or the occipital lobe, but they are not directly related to pupillary response.

Choice B reason: Assessing the patient's level of consciousness is an important part of the neurological assessment, but it is not done by evaluating pupillary response alone. Level of consciousness is determined by observing the patient's responsiveness to verbal and physical stimuli, as well as their orientation to person, place, time, and situation.

Choice C reason: Assessing the patient for increased intracranial pressure is the best explanation for evaluating pupillary response. Increased intracranial pressure is a life-threatening condition that can result from brain swelling, bleeding, or infection. It can cause compression of the brainstem and the cranial nerves, leading to changes in pupillary size, shape, and reactivity. Pupillary response is a sensitive indicator of intracranial pressure and brainstem function.

Choice D reason: Assessing the patient for cerebrospinal fluid leakage is not the main reason for evaluating pupillary response. Cerebrospinal fluid leakage can occur after a craniotomy due to a tear in the dura mater, the membrane that covers the brain and spinal cord. It can cause symptoms such as headache, nausea, vomiting, and meningitis. However, it does not affect pupillary response unless it causes increased intracranial pressure.