The nurse is administering a controlled substance that falls into the category of Schedule I. Which of the following displays the appropriate abuse potential for Schedule I drugs?

Lowest abuse potential

Moderate abuse potential

Mild abuse potential

Highest abuse potential

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A: Schedule I drugs do not have the lowest abuse potential. They are classified as having the highest potential for abuse.

B: Schedule I drugs do not have a moderate abuse potential. They are considered to have a high potential for abuse and no accepted medical use.

C: Schedule I drugs do not have a mild abuse potential. They are classified as having the highest potential for abuse.

D: Schedule I drugs have the highest abuse potential and are not accepted for medical use in the United States. Examples include heroin and LSD.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A: Renal dysfunction is common in older adults and can lead to decreased clearance of medications from the body, increasing the risk of toxicity. Monitoring for signs of toxicity is crucial in this population.

B: Pancreatic impairment can affect digestion and insulin production but is not the primary reason for monitoring medication toxicity in older adults.

C: Increased gastric motility is not typically associated with aging. In fact, decreased gastric motility is more common and can affect drug absorption.

D: Increased blood volume is not a common physiological change in older adults. Decreased renal function and changes in body composition are more relevant factors affecting medication metabolism and excretion.

A. Pull the auricle upward and outward to straighten the ear canal. B. Pull the auricle down and back to straighten the ear canal. C. Sit the child up to insert the cotton ball into the innermost ear canal. D. Sit the child up for 2 to 3 minutes after instilling drops in the ear canal.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A: Pulling the auricle upward and outward is the correct technique for adults and children over 3 years old, not for a 2-year-old child.

B: Pulling the auricle down and back is the correct technique for straightening the ear canal in children under 3 years old. This allows for proper administration of the eardrops.

C: Sitting the child up to insert a cotton ball into the innermost ear canal is not appropriate. Cotton balls should not be inserted deeply into the ear canal.

D: Sitting the child up for 2 to 3 minutes after instilling drops is not necessary. The child should remain in a position that allows the drops to stay in the ear canal for the prescribed time.

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The nurse is administering a controlled substance that falls into the category of Schedule I. Which of the following displays the appropriate abuse potential for Schedule I drugs?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse closely monitors an older adult for signs of medication toxicity. Which physiological change is the reason for the nurse’s action?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A 2-year-old child is ordered to have eardrops daily. Which action will the nurse take?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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