The nurse is administering a controlled substance that falls into the category of Schedule I. Which of the following displays the appropriate abuse potential for Schedule I drugs?

Lowest abuse potential

Moderate abuse potential

Mild abuse potential

Highest abuse potential

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A: Schedule I drugs do not have the lowest abuse potential. They are classified as having the highest potential for abuse.

B: Schedule I drugs do not have a moderate abuse potential. They are considered to have a high potential for abuse and no accepted medical use.

C: Schedule I drugs do not have a mild abuse potential. They are classified as having the highest potential for abuse.

D: Schedule I drugs have the highest abuse potential and are not accepted for medical use in the United States. Examples include heroin and LSD.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A: Administering the medication and monitoring the patient frequently is not appropriate because phenytoin is not indicated for pain management.

B: Refusing to give the medication and notifying the nurse supervisor is a step in the right direction, but the nurse should also seek clarification from the health care provider.

C: Giving the patient hydromorphone without clarification is not appropriate. The nurse must verify the order with the health care provider.

D: Calling the health care provider to clarify the order is the correct action. This ensures that the correct medication is administered as intended.

Correct Answer is ["2"]

Explanation

Step 1: Determine the dosage required. 650 mg

Step 2: Determine the dosage per tablet. 325 mg per tablet

Step 3: Calculate the number of tablets needed. 650 mg ÷ 325 mg per tablet = 2 tablets

The nurse should administer 2 tablets.

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The nurse is administering a controlled substance that falls into the category of Schedule I. Which of the following displays the appropriate abuse potential for Schedule I drugs?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

An order is written for phenytoin 500 mg IM q3-4h prn for pain. The nurse recognizes that treatment of pain is not a standard therapeutic indication for this drug. The nurse believes that the health care provider meant to write hydromorphone. What should the nurse do?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is preparing to administer aspirin 650 mg PO every 12 hours. The amount available is aspirin 325 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Correct Answer is ["2"]

Explanation

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