Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the prescription bethanechol is effective for a client diagnosed with urinary retention?
Urinary output equal intake.
No terminal urinary dribbling.
Denies stress incontinence.
Absence of xerostomia.
The Correct Answer is A
A) Urinary output equal intake:
This assessment finding suggests that the client is voiding an amount of urine equivalent to their fluid intake, indicating effective bladder emptying. Bethanechol is a cholinergic agonist that stimulates bladder contraction, helping to improve urinary retention by promoting the expulsion of urine from the bladder. Equal urinary output and intake indicate that the bladder is adequately emptying, which is a positive response to bethanechol therapy.
B) No terminal urinary dribbling:
While the absence of terminal urinary dribbling may be an indicator of improved bladder emptying, it is not as definitive as assessing urinary output equal to intake. Terminal urinary dribbling refers to the involuntary loss of urine that occurs after completing urination due to incomplete emptying of the bladder. While its absence may suggest improved bladder emptying, it is not as reliable an indicator as measuring urinary output.
C) Denies stress incontinence:
The absence of stress incontinence, which is the involuntary loss of urine during activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure (such as coughing, sneezing, or lifting), is not directly related to the effectiveness of bethanechol for urinary retention. Bethanechol primarily targets urinary retention by stimulating bladder contraction rather than addressing stress incontinence, which involves weakness of the pelvic floor muscles.
D) Absence of xerostomia:
Xerostomia refers to dryness of the mouth due to decreased saliva production and is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications. Bethanechol, as a cholinergic agonist, may actually increase saliva production and is not typically associated with xerostomia. However, the absence of xerostomia does not directly indicate the effectiveness of bethanechol for urinary retention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Sodium level 140 mEq/L (140 mmol/L):
The sodium level within the reference range does not indicate a vitamin D overdose. Sodium levels are typically not affected by vitamin D overdose.
B) Total calcium level 12 mg/dL (3 mmol/L):
This finding suggests a possible vitamin D overdose. Vitamin D plays a crucial role in calcium absorption from the intestines. Excessive vitamin D intake can lead to increased calcium absorption, resulting in hypercalcemia. Elevated calcium levels can lead to various symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weakness, and confusion. Monitoring calcium levels is essential in individuals with suspected vitamin D overdose.
C) Total bilirubin 4 mg/dL (68.4 μmol/L):
Elevated bilirubin levels typically indicate liver dysfunction or hemolysis. It is not directly related to vitamin D overdose.
D) Serum glucose 170 mg/dL (9.4 mmol/L):
Elevated glucose levels suggest hyperglycemia, which can occur due to various factors such as diabetes mellitus or stress response. It is not directly related to vitamin D overdose.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Undergo annual eye examinations:
While methotrexate and adalimumab can both have potential ocular side effects, such as blurred vision or eye pain, the need for annual eye examinations is more commonly associated with methotrexate therapy. Methotrexate can cause ocular toxicity, including retinopathy and optic neuropathy, which necessitates regular monitoring by an ophthalmologist. However, adalimumab is not typically associated with annual eye examinations, so this instruction is not directly relevant to the addition of adalimumab to the client’s regimen.
B) Have a chest x-ray prior to your first dose:
A chest x-ray is not routinely required before initiating adalimumab therapy. While screening for tuberculosis (TB) may be necessary in clients starting adalimumab due to its immunosuppressive effects, a chest x-ray is not always indicated for this purpose. Instead, TB screening usually involves a thorough history, physical examination, and possibly tuberculin skin testing or interferon-gamma release assays. Therefore, this instruction is not specifically related to the addition of adalimumab to the client’s treatment regimen.
C) Avoid crowds and people who are sick:
Adalimumab is a biologic disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) that suppresses the immune system’s inflammatory response by targeting tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha). As a result, clients taking adalimumab are at increased risk of infections, including bacterial, viral, and fungal infections. Therefore, instructing the client to avoid crowds and individuals who are sick helps reduce the risk of exposure to infectious pathogens and minimize the likelihood of developing infections while on adalimumab therapy.
D) Obtain routine vaccinations as scheduled:
While maintaining up-to-date vaccinations is important for overall health and immunity, clients receiving biologic DMARDs like adalimumab may have a reduced response to vaccines due to immunosuppression. Therefore, it is generally recommended to administer necessary vaccinations before starting adalimumab therapy whenever possible. However, the decision to administer vaccines should be individualized, and certain live vaccines may be contraindicated while receiving adalimumab. Nonetheless, this instruction is not directly related to the addition of adalimumab to the client’s medication regimen.
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