The nurse is assessing a client with a gunshot wound to the abdomen who is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) following a 3-hour surgical procedure. Which elevated laboratory value indicates pancreatic damage?
Lipase.
Myoglobinuria.
White blood count (WBC).
Bilirubin.
The Correct Answer is A
A) Lipase:
Correct. Lipase is an enzyme produced by the pancreas that aids in the digestion of fats. Elevated levels of lipase in the blood can indicate pancreatic damage or inflammation, such as that which may occur due to trauma like a gunshot wound to the abdomen. Pancreatic injury can lead to leakage of enzymes into the bloodstream, resulting in elevated serum lipase levels. Monitoring lipase levels helps assess pancreatic function and detect injury or disease.
B) Myoglobinuria:
Myoglobinuria refers to the presence of myoglobin, a protein found in muscle cells, in the urine. It is often associated with muscle injury or breakdown, such as rhabdomyolysis. While abdominal trauma may result in muscle injury, myoglobinuria is not specific to pancreatic damage and is more indicative of muscle-related injury or conditions.
C) White blood count (WBC):
Elevated white blood cell count (WBC), or leukocytosis, is a non-specific marker of inflammation or infection. While it may occur in response to tissue injury, including pancreatic injury, it is not specific to pancreatic damage and can be elevated due to various other factors, such as surgical stress, infection, or inflammation.
D) Bilirubin:
Bilirubin is a pigment produced during the breakdown of red blood cells and is excreted by the liver. Elevated levels of bilirubin may indicate liver dysfunction or obstruction of the bile ducts, but they are not specific to pancreatic damage. While pancreatic injury can lead to obstruction of the bile ducts in some cases, monitoring bilirubin levels alone is not sufficient to diagnose pancreatic damage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) An increase in afterload results in decreased systolic pressure, which creates a decreased cardiac output:
This statement is incorrect. According to the Frank-Starling law, afterload refers to the resistance against which the heart must pump blood during systole. An increase in afterload typically results in increased systolic pressure, not decreased, as the heart works harder to overcome the increased resistance. However, increased afterload can lead to decreased cardiac output due to the increased work of the heart.
B) A decrease in afterload causes the cardiac muscles to hypertrophy, resulting in increased diastolic volume:
This statement is incorrect. A decrease in afterload typically reduces the workload on the heart, which may lead to reverse remodeling and a reduction in cardiac hypertrophy. Increased diastolic volume may occur due to reduced afterload, but it's not the direct result of hypertrophy.
C) An increase in preload results in greater shortening of myocardial fibers, thereby increasing contractility:
Correct. The Frank-Starling law states that an increase in preload (end-diastolic volume or stretch of myocardial fibers) leads to greater overlap of actin and myosin filaments within myocardial fibers during systole. This increased overlap results in stronger myocardial contraction (increased contractility), leading to an increased stroke volume and cardiac output.
D) A decrease in preload results in increasing diastolic muscle fiber length, which impedes contractility:
This statement is incorrect. Preload refers to the degree of stretch of the myocardial fibers at the end of diastole. A decrease in preload would lead to decreased stretch of the myocardial fibers, not increasing diastolic muscle fiber length. Decreased preload typically results in decreased contractility rather than an impediment to contractility due to reduced myocardial stretch.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Nerve degeneration due to chronic gastric reflux:
Nerve degeneration due to chronic gastric reflux may lead to conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) or esophagitis, but it is not directly related to the clinical presentation of intestinal obstruction. Symptoms of GERD or esophagitis typically include heartburn, regurgitation, and dysphagia rather than severe, colicky abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distention.
B) Volvulus that occurred during an appendectomy:
Correct. Volvulus refers to the twisting of a segment of the intestine around its mesentery, leading to obstruction of the bowel lumen and compromising blood flow to the affected area. In this scenario, the client's clinical presentation of severe, colicky abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distention is consistent with symptoms of intestinal obstruction, which can occur secondary to volvulus. Volvulus may result from various factors, including prior abdominal surgeries, such as an appendectomy, leading to abnormal positioning or adhesions within the abdomen.
C) Esophagitis due to reflux of gastric contents:
Esophagitis due to reflux of gastric contents can cause symptoms such as heartburn, chest pain, and difficulty swallowing, but it is not typically associated with severe, colicky abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distention characteristic of intestinal obstruction.
D) A history of having Helicobacter pylori infection:
Helicobacter pylori infection is associated with conditions such as peptic ulcer disease and gastritis, but it is not directly related to the clinical presentation of intestinal obstruction. Symptoms of H. pylori infection may include abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting, but they are not typically colicky and severe as those seen in intestinal obstruction.
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