The nurse is assessing a client’s skin and notices a raised nodule on the right forearm that is tender and filled with purulent secretions. The healthcare provider (HCP) diagnosed the abscess as a furuncle. Which pathological etiology places the client at risk for the development of a furuncle?
Staphylococcus aureus abscess around a hair follicle.
Insect or spider bite that becomes infected.
Inadequate blood supply to the area.
Sexual contact with an infected partner.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: A furuncle is a painful abscess caused by Staphylococcus aureus infecting a hair follicle, leading to purulent, tender nodules. This bacterial etiology is the primary risk factor, as S. aureus colonizes skin and invades follicles, causing localized infection. This aligns with dermatological pathology for furuncle development.
Choice B reason: Insect or spider bites may cause secondary infections but are not the primary etiology of furuncles. Furuncles specifically result from S. aureus folliculitis. Bites cause different lesions, like cellulitis, making this incorrect for the typical pathological process leading to a furuncle’s formation.
Choice C reason: Inadequate blood supply may impair healing but does not directly cause furuncles. S. aureus infection of hair follicles is the primary etiology. Poor perfusion is a risk for chronic wounds, not acute folliculitis, making this incorrect for the pathological etiology of a furuncle.
Choice D reason: Sexual contact with an infected partner may transmit STDs but is unrelated to furuncles, which are caused by S. aureus skin infections. Furuncles are not sexually transmitted, making this incorrect, as the etiology is bacterial colonization of hair follicles, not interpersonal transmission.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: DIC involves widespread microthrombi formation and clotting factor consumption, leading to bleeding tendencies. Hematuria and hemoptysis reflect microvascular bleeding from depleted coagulation factors, common in sepsis-induced DIC. These findings align with DIC’s pathophysiology, where simultaneous clotting and hemorrhage occur, causing ecchymotic extremities, as seen in this client.
Choice B reason: Polyuria and productive cough are unrelated to DIC. Polyuria suggests renal or endocrine issues, and productive cough indicates respiratory infection. DIC causes bleeding and clotting abnormalities, not these symptoms. These findings do not support the pathophysiology of sepsis-induced DIC, which manifests as hemorrhagic tendencies like hematuria.
Choice C reason: Glucosuria and lethargy suggest diabetes or metabolic issues, not DIC. DIC involves coagulopathy, leading to bleeding or thrombosis, not glucose excretion or fatigue alone. These symptoms are unrelated to the microthrombi and bleeding diathesis of DIC, making them inconsistent with the client’s ecchymotic presentation.
Choice D reason: Frothy urine indicates proteinuria or renal disease, and anorexia is nonspecific. Neither directly relates to DIC’s coagulopathy, which causes bleeding (e.g., hematuria) due to clotting factor depletion. These findings do not support DIC’s pathophysiology, as they lack connection to the hemorrhagic or thrombotic features seen in
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Decreased red blood cell count indicates anemia, which may cause fatigue or exacerbate ischemia but is not a direct marker of atherosclerosis. Angina results from arterial plaque buildup, driven by elevated LDL cholesterol. Low RBCs do not contribute to plaque formation, making this inconsistent with the diagnosis.
Choice B reason: Elevated LDL cholesterol is a primary risk factor for atherosclerosis, as it deposits in arterial walls, forming plaques that narrow coronary arteries, causing angina. In overweight smokers with stress, high LDL is a key driver of cardiovascular disease, directly supporting the pathophysiology of angina, per evidence-based lipid guidelines.
Choice C reason: Decreased triglycerides are not associated with atherosclerosis, which is driven by high LDL and low HDL. Triglycerides contribute to cardiovascular risk when elevated, but low levels do not cause angina. Elevated LDL is the critical lipid abnormality in this client’s angina due to coronary artery narrowing.
Choice D reason: Increased HDL cholesterol is protective against atherosclerosis, as it removes cholesterol from arteries, reducing plaque formation. Angina is associated with low HDL and high LDL. High HDL would mitigate, not cause, the client’s condition, making this inconsistent with the diagnosis of atherosclerosis-induced angina.
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