The nurse is assessing a client’s skin and notices a raised nodule on the right forearm that is tender and filled with purulent secretions. The healthcare provider (HCP) diagnosed the abscess as a furuncle. Which pathological etiology places the client at risk for the development of a furuncle?

Staphylococcus aureus abscess around a hair follicle.

Insect or spider bite that becomes infected.

Inadequate blood supply to the area.

Sexual contact with an infected partner.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: A furuncle is a painful abscess caused by Staphylococcus aureus infecting a hair follicle, leading to purulent, tender nodules. This bacterial etiology is the primary risk factor, as S. aureus colonizes skin and invades follicles, causing localized infection. This aligns with dermatological pathology for furuncle development.

Choice B reason: Insect or spider bites may cause secondary infections but are not the primary etiology of furuncles. Furuncles specifically result from S. aureus folliculitis. Bites cause different lesions, like cellulitis, making this incorrect for the typical pathological process leading to a furuncle’s formation.

Choice C reason: Inadequate blood supply may impair healing but does not directly cause furuncles. S. aureus infection of hair follicles is the primary etiology. Poor perfusion is a risk for chronic wounds, not acute folliculitis, making this incorrect for the pathological etiology of a furuncle.

Choice D reason: Sexual contact with an infected partner may transmit STDs but is unrelated to furuncles, which are caused by S. aureus skin infections. Furuncles are not sexually transmitted, making this incorrect, as the etiology is bacterial colonization of hair follicles, not interpersonal transmission.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: The epigastric region, located midline above the umbilicus, encompasses the stomach, where the orange-sized mass was identified on imaging and palpation. GI bleeding and a stomach mass align with this location, making it the correct area for documentation, per standard anatomical landmarks used in clinical assessment.

Choice B reason: The hypochondriac regions are lateral to the epigastrium, covering parts of the liver and spleen, not the stomach. A stomach mass causing GI bleeding is located in the epigastric region. This choice is incorrect, as it does not correspond to the anatomical location of the stomach.

Choice C reason: The periumbilical area surrounds the umbilicus, covering small intestines, not the stomach. A stomach mass is in the epigastric region, as confirmed by imaging and palpation. This area is incorrect for documenting a stomach-related finding associated with GI bleeding, per anatomical standards.

Choice D reason: The costovertebral angle is posterior, near the kidneys, unrelated to the stomach. A stomach mass causing GI bleeding is in the epigastric region. This choice is incorrect, as it does not align with the stomach’s anatomical location or the clinical findings of a palpable mass.

A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). C. Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML). D. Hairy-cell leukemia.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is an aggressive malignancy of lymphoid cells, often achieving complete remission with intensive chemotherapy, especially in children. Suppression without remission is not typical, as ALL responds well to treatment, targeting rapidly dividing blast cells. CLL, a slower-progressing disease, better fits the description of suppression without complete cure.

Choice B reason: Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) is a low-grade malignancy of mature B-lymphocytes, often managed with chemotherapy to suppress disease progression rather than achieve complete remission. CLL’s indolent nature means it can be controlled, but residual disease persists due to slow cell turnover, aligning with the question’s description of suppression.

Choice C reason: Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) is an aggressive malignancy of myeloid cells, requiring intensive chemotherapy or stem cell transplant for potential remission. Suppression without remission is less common, as AML treatment aims for complete response. CLL’s chronic nature makes it more likely to result in disease control rather than cure.

Choice D reason: Hairy-cell leukemia is a rare, indolent B-cell malignancy highly responsive to purine analogs, often achieving long-term remission or near-cure. Suppression without remission is not characteristic, as treatment typically yields durable responses. CLL’s partial response to chemotherapy better matches the scenario of ongoing disease suppression.

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The nurse is assessing a client’s skin and notices a raised nodule on the right forearm that is tender and filled with purulent secretions. The healthcare provider (HCP) diagnosed the abscess as a furuncle. Which pathological etiology places the client at risk for the development of a furuncle?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client is admitted with gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding and a flat plate of the abdomen reveals an orange-sized mass in the stomach. After identifying the mass upon palpation of the abdomen, which location should the nurse document this finding?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Which type of leukemia can be successfully treated by chemotherapy resulting in suppression, but not complete remission?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is assessing a client’s skin and notices a raised nodule on the right forearm that is tender and filled with purulent secretions. The healthcare provider (HCP) diagnosed the abscess as a furuncle. Which pathological etiology places the client at risk for the development of a furuncle?

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