The nurse is assessing vital signs and is preparing to measure the client's blood pressure. Prior to obtaining the blood pressure, what action would be most appropriate?
Inflate the blood pressure cuff 30 mmHg above the point where the radial pulse disappears.
Assist the patient to a standing position for five to ten minutes.
Palpate the radial artery and place your stethoscope lightly over this area.
Measure the blood pressure cuff, ensuring that the cuff encircles 60% of the client’s arm.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Inflating the blood pressure cuff 30 mmHg above the point where the radial pulse disappears is correct. This method, known as the palpatory method, prevents auscultatory gap errors and ensures an accurate blood pressure reading.
B. Assisting the patient to a standing position for five to ten minutes is incorrect unless assessing for orthostatic hypotension. For routine blood pressure measurements, the client should be seated and at rest for at least five minutes.
C. Palpating the radial artery and placing the stethoscope lightly over this area is incorrect because blood pressure is auscultated over the brachial artery, not the radial artery.
D. Measuring the blood pressure cuff to encircle 60% of the client’s arm is incorrect. The correct guideline is that the cuff bladder should encircle at least 80% of the arm circumference, not 60%.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A solid, dark brown color alone is not necessarily indicative of melanoma. Melanomas often have multiple colors, including black, brown, blue, or red.
B. Asymmetric, irregular borders is correct. Melanoma lesions are often asymmetrical, with irregular, poorly defined borders. They also tend to have varied pigmentation and may change over time. The ABCDE rule (Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter >6mm, Evolution) is used to assess suspicious moles.
C. Flat with silvery scales describes psoriasis, not melanoma.
D. A diameter of 3 mm is smaller than the typical >6 mm size seen in melanoma.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Thinning of the vertebral discs leads to a decrease in height, not weight.
B. Lean body mass actually decreases with aging, contributing to weight loss rather than gain.
C. Spinal kyphosis affects posture but does not significantly contribute to changes in body weight.
D. Loss of muscle tissue (sarcopenia) is correct because aging leads to a decline in muscle mass, which contributes to weight loss. Additionally, a slower metabolism and reduced physical activity further affect body composition.
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