The nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department who is experiencing facial droop and slurred speech orally. The physician ordered aspirin to be given orally. What should the nurse do?
Instruct the patient to swallow the medication with the head tilted backwards
Place the medication in the backwards in the back of the mouth on the affected side
Evaluate the patient’s ability to swallow
Provide the patient with thickened liquids
The Correct Answer is C
A) Instruct the patient to swallow the medication with the head tilted backwards:
Tilting the head backward while swallowing may worsen the patient's ability to swallow, especially if they are experiencing facial droop and slurred speech. This position could increase the risk of aspiration or choking. A safer approach involves evaluating the patient’s swallowing ability before giving any oral medications.
B) Place the medication in the back of the mouth on the affected side:
While placing the medication on the unaffected side might seem like an alternative to help with swallowing, it is still important to assess the patient's swallowing ability first. If the patient has difficulty swallowing due to neurological deficits, placing the medication on the affected side could increase the risk of aspiration, leading to complications such as pneumonia.
C) Evaluate the patient’s ability to swallow:
Evaluating the patient's ability to swallow is the most important initial action. Facial droop and slurred speech can indicate potential dysphagia or difficulty swallowing, which could lead to aspiration if medications are given orally without further assessment. The nurse must determine if the patient can swallow safely before administering any oral medications, including aspirin, to prevent complications.
D) Provide the patient with thickened liquids:
Thickened liquids may be helpful for patients with known dysphagia, but this approach is not suitable in this case because the first priority is assessing the patient's swallowing ability. Giving thickened liquids without evaluating swallowing could increase the risk of aspiration if the patient is unable to manage liquids safely. An evaluation should precede any interventions like thickening liquids.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. 15-30g oral carbohydrates:
Oral carbohydrates are a first-line treatment for hypoglycemia in a conscious, alert patient who can safely swallow. However, since the patient is unresponsive, administering oral carbohydrates is not an appropriate option. The patient’s inability to swallow safely increases the risk of aspiration, making IV treatment the priority in this case.
B. 10% dextrose continuous IV infusion:
A 10% dextrose IV infusion can be used in the management of hypoglycemia, but in an acute, emergency setting where the patient is unresponsive and their blood glucose is critically low (30 mg/dL), a rapid-acting intervention is needed. A bolus dose of a concentrated solution, such as 50% dextrose, is more appropriate for quickly raising the blood glucose level in this situation, rather than a continuous infusion, which takes longer to achieve an effective increase in glucose.
C. Glucagon PO:
Glucagon is typically used for hypoglycemia in patients who are unconscious or unable to take oral glucose. However, glucagon is typically administered intramuscularly (IM) or subcutaneously (SQ), not orally (PO). Administering glucagon orally is ineffective, as it would not be absorbed by the body in the necessary manner to correct hypoglycemia. Therefore, this option is inappropriate.
D. 50% dextrose in water (50% DW) IV push:
When a patient is unresponsive and their blood glucose level is critically low (30 mg/dL), the priority treatment is an immediate, concentrated source of glucose. Administering 50% dextrose IV push is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. It provides a rapid and effective increase in blood glucose levels, which is critical for reversing hypoglycemia in an emergency situation. This is the fastest and most direct approach to treating severe hypoglycemia in an unresponsive patient.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) "Increased viral load":
An increased viral load would indicate that the HIV virus is actively replicating in the body. This suggests that the antiretroviral therapy (ART) is not effective, as it has failed to suppress the viral replication. The goal of ART is to lower the viral load to undetectable levels, indicating that the virus is well controlled.
B) "Decreased neutrophil count":
. A decreased neutrophil count (neutropenia) is not directly related to the effectiveness of ART in managing HIV. Neutropenia can occur due to various causes, such as certain medications (including some ART medications), infections, or other underlying conditions. While neutropenia could be a side effect of ART, it does not directly reflect the effectiveness of HIV treatment. Monitoring CD4-T-cell counts and viral load is a better indicator of ART effectiveness.
C) "Decreased white blood cell count":
. A decreased white blood cell count (leukopenia) is also not an indicator of ART effectiveness. While some ART medications may lead to a decrease in white blood cell count, especially in the early stages of treatment, a decrease in the white blood cell count is not a measure of how well the therapy is controlling HIV. The effectiveness of ART is primarily assessed by the viral load and CD4-T-cell count.
D) "Increased CD4-T-cell count":
. CD4-T-cell count is a critical marker for monitoring the immune system's function in patients with HIV. CD4-T-cells are a type of T lymphocyte (white blood cell) that are targeted and destroyed by the HIV virus. A higher CD4-T-cell count indicates that the immune system is recovering and functioning better, which is a sign that the ART is effective in controlling the virus. Ideally, ART should result in a higher CD4-T-cell count and lower viral load, showing that the treatment is effectively suppressing the virus and preserving the immune system.
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