The nurse is caring for a client who is diabetic and has a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dL. The client is unconscious and has a 20-gauge peripheral IV in the antecubital area. After securing the client's airway, what medication should the nurse plan to administer first?
50% Dextrose in Water (D50W) IV push
Insulin Regular IV push
0.9% sodium chloride infusion
5% Dextrose continuous IV infusion
The Correct Answer is A
A. 50% Dextrose in Water (D50W) IV push is the most appropriate intervention for a client with a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dL, indicating severe hypoglycemia. The rapid administration of D50W will quickly raise the blood glucose level and help restore consciousness.
B. Insulin Regular IV push would lower the blood glucose level, which is not appropriate in this situation where the client is hypoglycemic.
C. 0.9% sodium chloride infusion is a general fluid replacement solution, but it will not address the client's low blood glucose level.
D. 5% Dextrose continuous IV infusion is typically used for maintenance, but it would not act as quickly as D50W to correct severe hypoglycemia in an unconscious patient.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Hypertension and headache are not typical signs of hypermagnesemia. These symptoms are more commonly associated with conditions like hypertension or intracranial pressure.
B. Tachycardia and tachypnea are not characteristic of hypermagnesemia. In fact, hypermagnesemia typically causes bradycardia and hypoventilation due to the depressant effect of magnesium on the cardiovascular and respiratory systems.
C. Depressed deep tendon reflexes are a classic sign of hypermagnesemia. Magnesium sulfate acts as a central nervous system depressant, and elevated magnesium levels can impair neuromuscular function, leading to reduced reflexes.
D. Positive Trousseau's sign is indicative of hypocalcemia, not hypermagnesemia. It is a sign of low calcium levels, where a blood pressure cuff inflated above systolic pressure for 3 minutes causes muscle spasms in the hand and forearm.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. The pain does not come from severed blood vessels in the residual stump. Phantom limb pain is not caused by the stump itself but rather by the brain’s perception of the missing limb.
B. Phantom limb pain is not psychosomatic. It is a real phenomenon where the brain continues to receive signals from nerves that were previously connected to the amputated limb.
C. Phantom limb pain is often treated with adjunct medications such as antiepileptics (e.g., gabapentin) and antidepressants (e.g., amitriptyline), which help modify the way the brain processes pain signals.
D. While opioid medications can be used for pain management, phantom limb pain often does not respond well to opioids. It typically requires a combination of other treatments, such as those mentioned in C.
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