A nurse is caring for a client in the prenatal clinic who is at 7 weeks of gestation.
The client reports urinary frequency and asks the nurse if this will continue throughout her pregnancy. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
Yes, in most cases it only lasts until about the 12th week, but it will continue if you have poor bladder tone.
Yes, it will, but if you decrease your fluid intake, especially at bedtime, it won’t be so bothersome.
There is no way to predict how long it will last for each individual client, so you’ll just have to wait and see.
No, it should only last until about your 12th week but it will return near the end of the pregnancy
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A:
It is inaccurate to state that urinary frequency will continue throughout pregnancy in most cases. While it is a common symptom, it typically resolves by the end of the first trimester.
Suggesting that poor bladder tone is the cause of ongoing urinary frequency is not supported by evidence. This response may unnecessarily alarm a client who is already experiencing discomfort.
Choice B:
It is not recommended to advise a pregnant woman to decrease her fluid intake, especially during the first trimester when adequate hydration is crucial.
Restricting fluids can lead to dehydration, which can have negative consequences for both the mother and the fetus. While reducing fluid intake before bedtime might lessen nighttime urination, it does not address the underlying cause of urinary frequency.
Choice C:
While it is true that the duration of urinary frequency can vary among individuals, providing such an uncertain response may not be helpful to the client.
It is important to offer information that is both accurate and reassuring.
Choice D:
This response accurately conveys that urinary frequency is a common early pregnancy symptom that typically resolves by the end of the first trimester.
It also acknowledges that the symptom may return later in pregnancy, which helps to prepare the client for potential discomfort.
This response provides accurate information in a reassuring manner, making it the most appropriate choice.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A blood pressure of 100/60 is within the normal range and does not pose a contraindication to oral contraceptives. While hypertension (high blood pressure) can be a contraindication, a blood pressure of 100/60 is not considered hypertensive.
However, it's essential to monitor blood pressure regularly in individuals using oral contraceptives, as some may experience a slight increase in blood pressure.
Choice B rationale:
Age is a significant factor when considering oral contraceptive use.
Adolescents under 16 years of age are generally not recommended to use oral contraceptives due to several concerns: Their reproductive systems are still developing, and hormonal contraceptives could potentially disrupt normal growth and development.
Younger adolescents may have more difficulty adhering to a strict daily medication regimen, which is crucial for the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
They may be at a higher risk of certain side effects, such as irregular bleeding patterns and mood changes.
Acne treatment is often a primary reason for considering oral contraceptives in adolescents. However, alternative acne treatments that are more suitable for younger individuals are available.
Choice C rationale:
A hematocrit of 39 is within the normal range for females and does not contraindicate oral contraceptive use.
Hematocrit measures the proportion of red blood cells in the blood. Oral contraceptives can sometimes cause slight changes in hematocrit levels, but these changes are typically not clinically significant.
Choice D rationale:
A menstrual cycle of 14 days is considered a normal variation and does not pose a contraindication to oral contraceptives. Oral contraceptives can often regulate irregular menstrual cycles, so they may even be beneficial for individuals with shorter or longer cycles.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A:
While fetal maturity is a factor in the timing of amniocentesis, it's not the primary reason for waiting until 14 weeks.
Earlier in pregnancy, fetal cells are less abundant in the amniotic fluid, making it more challenging to obtain a sufficient sample for accurate testing.
Additionally, the procedure carries a slightly higher risk of miscarriage before 14 weeks.
Choice B:
The audibility of the fetal heartbeat is not directly related to the timing of amniocentesis.
It's typically possible to hear the heartbeat by Doppler ultrasound around 10-12 weeks, but this doesn't mean there's enough amniotic fluid for amniocentesis.
Choice D:
The accuracy of genetic results is not dependent on the timing of amniocentesis after 14 weeks.
As long as a sufficient sample of amniotic fluid is obtained, the accuracy of the results is not affected by gestational age.
Choice C:
The most accurate explanation for why amniocentesis is not performed before 14 weeks is the amount of amniotic fluid. Before 14 weeks, there's typically not enough amniotic fluid to safely extract a sample without potentially harming the fetus or the placenta.
By 14 weeks, there's usually enough fluid to adequately cushion the fetus and the needle during the procedure, reducing the risks involved.
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