A 45-year-old patient presents to the trauma unit after a gunshot wound (GSW) to the abdomen. The patient has a temperature of 92 degrees Fahrenheit, is restless and confused, and has large amount of blood noted from the nasogastric (NG) tube as well as from the indwelling urinary catheter. Which additional assessment finding likely causes death within the first 24 hours following this injury?
Heart rate of 130 beats per minute
PH of 7.21 (normal 7.35-7.45)
Serum potassium 5.7 mEq/L (normal 3,5-5.3)
Platelet count 200,000 (normal 150,000-450,000)
The Correct Answer is B
A) Heart rate of 130 beats per minute
A heart rate of 130 beats per minute is tachycardia, which is often a compensatory response to injury, particularly in cases of trauma, blood loss, or shock. It is common in the initial phase after trauma as the body attempts to compensate for decreased blood volume or oxygen delivery. However, tachycardia alone is not typically fatal in the immediate post-injury period and can often be managed.
B) pH of 7.21 (normal 7.35–7.45)
A pH of 7.21 indicates acidosis, which is life-threatening and typically arises from shock, blood loss, or severe trauma. Acidosis occurs when the body is unable to compensate for lactic acid or other metabolic byproducts that accumulate due to insufficient oxygen delivery to tissues. In the case of a gunshot wound to the abdomen, there is a high risk of internal bleeding, hypoperfusion, and hypoxia, all of which can lead to metabolic acidosis. Severe acidosis can cause organ failure, particularly affecting the heart, kidneys, and brain.
C) Serum potassium 5.7 mEq/L (normal 3.5–5.3)
A serum potassium of 5.7 mEq/L is elevated, but it is moderately high and not typically life-threatening unless it reaches much higher levels (e.g., >6.0 mEq/L), which can cause cardiac arrhythmias. Elevated potassium can occur due to cellular injury (e.g., muscle trauma or rhabdomyolysis), but it would need to be corrected to prevent complications like arrhythmias.
D) Platelet count 200,000 (normal 150,000–450,000)
A platelet count of 200,000 is within the normal range (150,000–450,000) and does not indicate a problem with coagulation. The blood loss and the NG tube hemorrhage mentioned in the scenario suggest that the patient may be at risk for bleeding, but a platelet count in the normal range suggests that the body’s ability to form clots is likely intact.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) CD4 count of less than 200 cells/uL, and new diagnosis of pneumocystis pneumonia:
A CD4 count of less than 200 cells/uL and the diagnosis of a severe opportunistic infection, such as pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP), are major criteria for the diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). AIDS is the final stage of HIV infection, where the immune system is severely compromised, and the individual is highly susceptible to opportunistic infections like PCP, tuberculosis, and others. The CD4 count, which measures the number of immune system cells (specifically T-helper cells), is used to monitor disease progression, with values below 200 cells/uL indicating a diagnosis of AIDS.
B) CD4 count of 1200 cells/uL and a new diagnosis of hepatitis A:
While hepatitis A is an important condition that should be managed, it is not an opportunistic infection associated with AIDS. A CD4 count of 1200 cells/uL is within the normal range (500-1800 cells/uL), indicating that the immune system is not severely compromised.
C) Low grade fever with the diagnosis of influenza A:
A low-grade fever and a diagnosis of influenza A do not indicate AIDS. Influenza is a viral infection that can affect both individuals with and without HIV. It is common to experience flu-like symptoms in the early stages of HIV infection, but the presence of a fever and influenza does not confirm AIDS. A low-grade fever is also not specific to AIDS or opportunistic infections.
D) New atopic dermatitis and a white blood count of 11 million/mm³:
Atopic dermatitis is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that is not specifically associated with HIV or AIDS. The white blood cell (WBC) count of 11 million/mm³ is elevated, but this alone does not confirm a diagnosis of AIDS. Elevated WBC counts can occur with various conditions, including infections and allergic reactions, but they are not a diagnostic feature of AIDS.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Ondansetron and Metoclopramide:
Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, and Metoclopramide is a medication that promotes gastric emptying and is often used to treat nausea and gastroesophageal reflux. Neither of these medications are typically associated with ototoxicity. Ototoxicity is more commonly seen with medications that affect the inner ear or auditory pathways, particularly those that are used in high doses or over extended periods.
B) Aspirin and ibuprofen:
Both aspirin (a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, NSAID) and ibuprofen are associated with ototoxicity, especially when used in high doses or over prolonged periods. Ototoxicity from NSAIDs can result in symptoms such as tinnitus (ringing in the ears) or even hearing loss. This occurs due to their impact on the cochlea and auditory nerve.
C) Metoprolol and Furosemide:
Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used for managing hypertension, heart failure, and other cardiovascular conditions, and Furosemide is a diuretic often used to treat conditions such as heart failure and edema. Neither of these drugs is typically associated with ototoxicity. However, high doses of furosemide, particularly when given rapidly or intravenously, may be associated with transient hearing loss.
D) Pantoprazole and Docusate Sodium:
Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) used to treat gastrointestinal issues like acid reflux and ulcers. Docusate sodium is a stool softener used to treat constipation. Neither of these medications is known to cause ototoxicity. These drugs generally do not affect hearing or the auditory system.
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