The nurse is caring for a patient who must undergo a splenectomy for treatment for idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which of the following statements best describes the rationale for the splenectomy?
The spleen is the primary site for platelet destruction.
The spleen is at risk for infection due to the critical loss of WBCs.
Your spleen is making too many platelets.
The spleen causes an overabundance of immature platelets.
The Correct Answer is A
A. The spleen is the primary site for platelet destruction. In ITP, the spleen often sequesters and destroys platelets, leading to low platelet levels. Removing the spleen reduces platelet destruction and can help increase platelet counts in affected patients.
B. The spleen is at risk for infection due to the critical loss of WBCs. While infection risk increases after splenectomy, this is not the rationale for the procedure. The spleen does play a role in immune function, but splenectomy is indicated for reducing platelet destruction, not infection prevention.
C. Your spleen is making too many platelets. The spleen does not produce platelets; rather, it filters and sometimes destroys them, particularly in ITP. This choice does not accurately reflect the pathophysiology of ITP.
D. The spleen causes an overabundance of immature platelets. The spleen does not cause an increase in immature platelets. In ITP, platelets are destroyed, not overproduced.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs." Aplastic anemia is characterized by the failure of bone marrow to produce adequate red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells, and platelets. This results in pancytopenia, which increases the risk of infections, anemia, and bleeding.
B. "Aplastic anemia is directly related to impaired liver function." Aplastic anemia is not related to liver function; it originates from the bone marrow’s inability to produce sufficient blood cells.
C. "Aplastic anemia is associated with the decreased intake of iron." Aplastic anemia is not caused by iron deficiency; it is primarily due to bone marrow failure. Iron deficiency anemia, on the other hand, results from a lack of iron intake or absorption.
D. "Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction." Increased RBC destruction is characteristic of hemolytic anemia, not aplastic anemia.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Folate: Folate is important for red blood cell production but does not address the Vitamin B12 deficiency seen in pernicious anemia.
B. Vitamin C: Vitamin C does not impact pernicious anemia as it is not involved in Vitamin B12 absorption.
C. Vitamin B12: Pernicious anemia occurs due to a lack of intrinsic factor, which is necessary for Vitamin B12 absorption. After a total gastrectomy, intrinsic factor is no longer produced, requiring Vitamin B12 supplementation.
D. Iron: Iron deficiency anemia is different from pernicious anemia, which specifically requires Vitamin B12 supplementation.
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