The nurse is caring for a patient who must undergo a splenectomy for treatment for idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which of the following statements best describes the rationale for the splenectomy?

The spleen is the primary site for platelet destruction.

The spleen is at risk for infection due to the critical loss of WBCs.

Your spleen is making too many platelets.

The spleen causes an overabundance of immature platelets.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. The spleen is the primary site for platelet destruction. In ITP, the spleen often sequesters and destroys platelets, leading to low platelet levels. Removing the spleen reduces platelet destruction and can help increase platelet counts in affected patients.

B. The spleen is at risk for infection due to the critical loss of WBCs. While infection risk increases after splenectomy, this is not the rationale for the procedure. The spleen does play a role in immune function, but splenectomy is indicated for reducing platelet destruction, not infection prevention.

C. Your spleen is making too many platelets. The spleen does not produce platelets; rather, it filters and sometimes destroys them, particularly in ITP. This choice does not accurately reflect the pathophysiology of ITP.

D. The spleen causes an overabundance of immature platelets. The spleen does not cause an increase in immature platelets. In ITP, platelets are destroyed, not overproduced.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Myxedema: Myxedema is associated with hypothyroidism, not multiple myeloma.

B. Pathologic fracture: Advanced multiple myeloma causes bone demineralization and osteolytic lesions, making bones fragile and increasing the risk for pathologic fractures.

C. Retinopathy: Retinopathy is commonly associated with diabetes or hypertension, not with multiple myeloma.

D. Gastrointestinal bleeding: Gastrointestinal bleeding is not a typical complication of multiple myeloma.

A. Malformed RBCs B. A deficiency in vitamin B12 C. An abundance of immature RBCS D. Destruction of RBCs

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Malformed RBCs: Malformed RBCs are not caused by a transfusion reaction; they are generally a result of bone marrow abnormalities or genetic conditions.

B. A deficiency in vitamin B12: Vitamin B12 deficiency causes megaloblastic anemia, not hemolysis. It is unrelated to transfusion reactions.

C. An abundance of immature RBCs: Immature RBCs, or reticulocytes, can increase as a compensatory response to anemia but are not a direct result of a transfusion reaction. The primary issue is RBC destruction.

D. Destruction of RBCs: A hemolytic reaction occurs when the immune system attacks incompatible red blood cells, leading to their destruction.

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The nurse is caring for a patient who must undergo a splenectomy for treatment for idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which of the following statements best describes the rationale for the splenectomy?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is assisting in planning care for a client who has advanced multiple myeloma. When planning care the nurse should recognize that the client is at risk for which of the following complications?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving treatment for a hemolytic reaction from a mismatched blood transfusion. The nurse understands that this the incompatible blood is causing what?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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