The nurse is caring for an older adult client who has been admitted to the unit with anemia. What would the nurse expect the client to possibly exhibit?
Elimination of iron by the body
Excessive consumption of coffee or tea
Blood loss from the gastrointestinal or genitourinary tract
Decrease in the total body iron stores with age
The Correct Answer is C
Reasoning:
Choice A reason: Elimination of iron by the body is not a typical cause of anemia in older adults. Iron is tightly regulated, and excessive loss occurs through bleeding, not spontaneous elimination. Anemia in the elderly is more commonly due to chronic blood loss or impaired absorption, not iron excretion.
Choice B reason: Excessive coffee or tea consumption can inhibit iron absorption due to tannins binding dietary iron, but it is not a primary cause of anemia in older adults. Blood loss or chronic disease are more common culprits, making dietary inhibition a less likely contributor in this population.
Choice C reason: Blood loss from the gastrointestinal or genitourinary tract is a common cause of anemia in older adults. Chronic bleeding from ulcers, colon cancer, or urinary tract issues depletes iron stores, leading to iron deficiency anemia, a frequent finding in the elderly due to higher prevalence of these conditions.
Choice D reason: A decrease in total body iron stores with age is not a primary cause of anemia. While absorption may decline slightly, blood loss from gastrointestinal or genitourinary sources is a more significant contributor in older adults, as it directly reduces iron available for hemoglobin synthesis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Reasoning:
Choice A reason: A sodium level of 150 mEq/L indicates hypernatremia, which occurs in diabetes insipidus when fluid restriction exacerbates water loss from polyuria. Without adequate ADH, the kidneys cannot conserve water, and restricting fluids further increases serum sodium concentration, reflecting dehydration and supporting the suspicion of fluid restriction.
Choice B reason: A phosphate level of 4.0 mg/dL is within the normal range and unrelated to fluid restriction in diabetes insipidus. Phosphate levels are affected by bone metabolism or renal function, not directly by ADH deficiency or fluid intake, making this finding irrelevant to the client’s fluid management strategy.
Choice C reason: A blood glucose level of 60 mg/dL is at the lower end of normal but unrelated to fluid restriction in diabetes insipidus. Glucose levels are affected by metabolic conditions like diabetes mellitus, not water balance issues caused by ADH deficiency, so this does not indicate fluid restriction.
Choice D reason: A potassium level of 2.9 mmol/L indicates hypokalemia, which is not directly linked to fluid restriction in diabetes insipidus. Potassium imbalances may result from other causes, like diuretic use or gastrointestinal losses, but they do not reflect the dehydration or sodium concentration changes associated with restricted fluid intake.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Reasoning:
Choice A reason: A blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg is not an absolute contraindication for thrombolytic therapy. While hypertension must be controlled (below 185/110 mm Hg) before thrombolytics, it is manageable with medication, unlike hemorrhagic stroke, which poses an immediate and absolute risk of worsening bleeding.
Choice B reason: Previous thrombolytic therapy within 12 months is not an absolute contraindication. Guidelines restrict thrombolytics within a shorter timeframe (e.g., recent major surgery), but prior therapy alone does not preclude use. Hemorrhagic stroke is a definitive contraindication due to the risk of catastrophic bleeding.
Choice C reason: Evidence of hemorrhagic stroke is an absolute contraindication for thrombolytic therapy, as thrombolytics like tPA dissolve clots, increasing bleeding in an already hemorrhagic brain. This risks worsening intracranial hemorrhage, leading to neurological deterioration or death, making it a critical exclusion criterion.
Choice D reason: Evidence of stroke evolution, such as progressing symptoms, is not an absolute contraindication. It may influence timing or eligibility, but thrombolytics can still be used within the time window if ischemic. Hemorrhagic stroke is a definitive barrier due to bleeding risk.
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