The nurse is continuing to care for the adolescent.
Admission Assessment
1400:
Adolescent brought to emergency department by parents following a fall while skateboarding. Adolescent reports pain in their right leg as 10 on a scale of 0 to 10 and is unable to bear weight.
Adolescent is awake, alert, and oriented x 3. Lungs clear, respirations even and regular. S1 and S2 with regular rate and rhythm. Abdomen soft and nontender with active bowel sounds in all four quadrants. Right lower extremity with open wound and displaced bone. Right lower extremity pulse +1, extremity cool to touch, edema present, capillary refill 4 seconds.
Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate from the provider?
Elevate the right leg above heart level.
Prepare the adolescent for surgery.
Remove the splint.
Apply ice to the affected extremity.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Elevate the right leg above heart level. This is contraindicated for the adolescent because elevating the leg above heart level can increase blood pressure in the injured area and worsen bleeding and swelling.
B. Prepare the adolescent for surgery. This is anticipated for the adolescent because they have an open fracture with bone displacement, which requires surgical intervention to reduce the risk of infection and complications.
C. Remove the splint. This is contraindicated for the adolescent because removing the splint can cause further damage to the bone and soft tissues and increase pain and bleeding.
D. Apply ice to the affected extremity. This is contraindicated for the adolescent because applying ice can decrease blood flow to the injured area and impair healing and sensation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Flexing the client's neck forward can increase intracranial pressure by impeding venous drainage from the brain and increasing cerebral blood volume. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
B. Grouping several nursing activities to be completed at one time can increase intracranial pressure by stimulating the client and causing fluctuations in blood pressure and heart rate. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
C. Limiting suctioning the client's airway to 30 seconds at a time can reduce intracranial pressure by minimizing hypoxia and hypercarbia, which can cause cerebral vasodilation and increased cerebral blood volume. However, this intervention alone is not sufficient to prevent increased intracranial pressure, and suctioning should be done only when necessary and with caution. Therefore, this choice is partially correct but not the best answer.
D. Placing the client in a quiet environment can reduce intracranial pressure by minimizing sensory stimulation and promoting relaxation, which can lower blood pressure and heart rate and decrease cerebral metabolic demand. Therefore, this choice is correct and the best answer.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A is correct because aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy and guides dosage adjustments.
B is incorrect because PT (prothrombin time) measures the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, not heparin.
C is incorrect because INR (international normalized ratio) is a standardized version of PT that also monitors warfarin therapy, not heparin.
D is incorrect because WBC count (white blood cell count) measures the body's immune response and has no relation to heparin therapy.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
