The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who is receiving aggressive drug therapy for treatment of HIV. The goal of this therapy is to:
promote the progression of disease.
conduct additional drug research.
intervene in late-stage AIDS.
improve survival rates.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Promote the progression of disease:
This statement is incorrect. The goal of HIV treatment is precisely the opposite: to inhibit the progression of the disease. HIV treatment, particularly antiretroviral therapy (ART), aims to suppress the replication of the virus in the body, slow down the progression of HIV infection, and prevent the development of AIDS-related complications. Promoting the progression of the disease would be counterproductive and contrary to the objectives of HIV management.
B. Conduct additional drug research:
Conducting additional drug research may be a goal in the broader context of advancing HIV treatment and finding new therapeutic approaches. However, it is not the primary goal of providing aggressive drug therapy to an individual client who is already undergoing treatment for HIV. The focus of aggressive drug therapy in this scenario is to effectively manage the virus, improve the client's health outcomes, and enhance their quality of life.
C. Intervene in late-stage AIDS:
Intervening in late-stage AIDS may be necessary in some cases to manage complications and improve outcomes for individuals with advanced HIV disease. However, the goal of aggressive drug therapy for HIV is not specifically to intervene only in late-stage AIDS. Instead, the goal is to initiate treatment as early as possible after HIV diagnosis, regardless of disease stage, to prevent the progression of HIV infection to AIDS and to maintain immune function.
D. Improve survival rates:
This is the correct choice. The primary goal of aggressive drug therapy for HIV, particularly with antiretroviral therapy (ART), is to improve survival rates. By effectively suppressing the replication of the virus, ART helps to preserve immune function, reduce the risk of opportunistic infections, and prolong the lifespan of individuals living with HIV. Improving survival rates is a key objective of HIV treatment and reflects the success of aggressive drug therapy in managing the infection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Attach a sign above her bed to have BP, IV lines, and lab work in her right arm.
- This option is not appropriate because after a right-sided modified-radical mastectomy, it's generally contraindicated to use the affected arm (right arm in this case) for blood pressure measurements, IV lines, or blood draws. This is because such procedures can impede lymphatic drainage and increase the risk of lymphedema. Therefore, the unaffected arm is typically preferred for these purposes to reduce the risk of complications.
B. Encourage her to turn, cough, and deep breathe at frequent intervals.
- While turning, coughing, and deep breathing are essential postoperative nursing interventions to prevent respiratory complications such as pneumonia, they are not specific to the unique needs of a woman who has undergone a mastectomy. These interventions are more focused on general postoperative care rather than addressing the specific concerns related to mastectomy, such as lymphedema management.
C. Position her right arm below heart level.
- This is the correct choice. Positioning the right arm below heart level helps reduce swelling and promotes lymphatic drainage, particularly after surgery involving the lymph nodes, as in a mastectomy. This positioning aids in preventing complications such as lymphedema and supports optimal circulation and fluid balance in the affected arm.
D. Ask the client how she feels about having her breast removed.
- While emotional support and addressing the client's feelings are important aspects of care for a woman who has undergone a mastectomy, this intervention is more appropriate during psychosocial assessment and counseling sessions, rather than immediately postoperatively. At this stage, the focus should be primarily on physical recovery and addressing immediate postoperative needs, such as pain management and prevention of complications like lymphedema. Emotional support can certainly be provided, but it should not be the primary intervention immediately following surgery.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Candidiasis:
Candidiasis is caused by an overgrowth of the fungus Candida albicans in the vagina. It typically presents with symptoms such as thick, white vaginal discharge (resembling cottage cheese), itching, and discomfort during sexual intercourse (dyspareunia). This option is the most likely diagnosis based on the client's symptoms.
B. Genital herpes simplex:
Genital herpes simplex is caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV). It presents with symptoms such as painful, fluid-filled blisters or sores in the genital area. While genital herpes can cause vaginal discharge, the discharge is typically clear or cloudy, not thick and white as described in the scenario.
C. Trichomoniasis:
Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. It commonly presents with symptoms such as a frothy, yellow-green vaginal discharge, itching, and discomfort during urination or sexual intercourse. The discharge is typically not described as thick and white.
D. Bacterial vaginosis:
Bacterial vaginosis results from an imbalance of bacteria in the vagina, with a decrease in beneficial bacteria and an overgrowth of harmful bacteria. It presents with symptoms such as a thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor. While bacterial vaginosis can cause vaginal discomfort, the discharge is not typically described as thick and white.
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