The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who is receiving aggressive drug therapy for treatment of HIV. The goal of this therapy is to:

promote the progression of disease.

conduct additional drug research.

intervene in late-stage AIDS.

improve survival rates.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Promote the progression of disease:

This statement is incorrect. The goal of HIV treatment is precisely the opposite: to inhibit the progression of the disease. HIV treatment, particularly antiretroviral therapy (ART), aims to suppress the replication of the virus in the body, slow down the progression of HIV infection, and prevent the development of AIDS-related complications. Promoting the progression of the disease would be counterproductive and contrary to the objectives of HIV management.

B. Conduct additional drug research:

Conducting additional drug research may be a goal in the broader context of advancing HIV treatment and finding new therapeutic approaches. However, it is not the primary goal of providing aggressive drug therapy to an individual client who is already undergoing treatment for HIV. The focus of aggressive drug therapy in this scenario is to effectively manage the virus, improve the client's health outcomes, and enhance their quality of life.

C. Intervene in late-stage AIDS:

Intervening in late-stage AIDS may be necessary in some cases to manage complications and improve outcomes for individuals with advanced HIV disease. However, the goal of aggressive drug therapy for HIV is not specifically to intervene only in late-stage AIDS. Instead, the goal is to initiate treatment as early as possible after HIV diagnosis, regardless of disease stage, to prevent the progression of HIV infection to AIDS and to maintain immune function.

D. Improve survival rates:

This is the correct choice. The primary goal of aggressive drug therapy for HIV, particularly with antiretroviral therapy (ART), is to improve survival rates. By effectively suppressing the replication of the virus, ART helps to preserve immune function, reduce the risk of opportunistic infections, and prolong the lifespan of individuals living with HIV. Improving survival rates is a key objective of HIV treatment and reflects the success of aggressive drug therapy in managing the infection.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Hepatitis:

- Hepatitis viruses (such as hepatitis B and hepatitis C) primarily affect the liver and are not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. Hepatitis B virus (HBV) and hepatitis C virus (HCV) infections can lead to liver inflammation, cirrhosis, and liver cancer (hepatocellular carcinoma), but they do not specifically increase the risk of cervical cancer.

B. Human papillomavirus (HPV):

- Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is strongly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. HPV is a sexually transmitted virus that can infect the cells of the cervix, leading to cellular changes that may progress to cervical dysplasia and cervical cancer over time. Persistent infection with high-risk strains of HPV, particularly HPV types 16 and 18, is a major risk factor for the development of cervical cancer.

C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV):

- Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a common virus in the herpesvirus family. While CMV infection can cause complications in certain populations, such as congenital CMV infection in infants born to mothers with primary CMV infection during pregnancy, it is not known to be directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer.

D. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV):

- Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is a herpesvirus that is best known for causing infectious mononucleosis (mono). EBV infection has been associated with certain types of cancers, such as Burkitt's lymphoma, Hodgkin's lymphoma, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma. However, EBV infection is not directly linked to an increased risk of cervical cancer.

A. deep tendons reflexes 2+ B. respiratory rate of 10 breaths/minute C. urinary output of 20 mL per hour D. difficulty in arousing

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+: Deep tendon reflexes are typically assessed to monitor for signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity. A normal finding of 2+ deep tendon reflexes suggests that the client is not experiencing magnesium sulfate toxicity. However, it does not specifically indicate whether the medication is at a therapeutic level.

B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/minute: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths/minute is below the normal range, and it could indicate respiratory depression, a potential side effect of magnesium sulfate toxicity. While this finding suggests a potential adverse reaction to the medication, it does not confirm whether the medication is at a therapeutic level.

C. Urinary output of 20 mL per hour: Adequate urinary output is essential for excreting magnesium sulfate and preventing toxicity. A urinary output of 20 mL per hour is within an acceptable range and suggests adequate renal function, which is important for maintaining therapeutic levels of the medication. However, it alone does not confirm whether the medication is at a therapeutic level.

D. Difficulty in arousing: Difficulty in arousing is a concerning sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity and suggests central nervous system depression. It indicates that the client may be experiencing an adverse reaction to the medication and that the dose may need adjustment. While this finding suggests a potential issue with medication dosing or toxicity, it does not confirm whether the medication is at a therapeutic level.

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The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who is receiving aggressive drug therapy for treatment of HIV. The goal of this therapy is to:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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