The nurse is developing an activity plan for a client. The nurse should recognize that which activity plan would best conserve the client's energy without compromising physical or mental health?
Scheduling energy-intensive activities at the time of day when the client has higher energy levels.
Scheduling all activities within a small block of time to allow the client a longer, uninterrupted rest perioD.
Scheduling toilet breaks before and after any other planned activity.
Scheduling the client's hygiene activities and limiting visitors.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Scheduling energy-intensive activities at the time of day when the client has higher energy levels is an activity plan that would best conserve the client's energy without compromising physical or mental health because it allows the client to perform tasks when they feel most capable and comfortable, as well as balance rest and activity throughout the day.
Choice B reason: Scheduling all activities within a small block of time to allow the client a longer, uninterrupted rest period is not an activity plan that would best conserve the client's energy without compromising physical or mental health because it can cause fatigue, stress, and frustration for the client, as well as reduce their mobility and function.
Choice C reason: Scheduling toilet breaks before and after any other planned activity is not an activity plan that would best conserve the client's energy without compromising physical or mental health because it can limit the client's fluid intake and output, as well as increase the risk of urinary tract infections or constipation.
Choice D reason: Scheduling the client's hygiene activities and limiting visitors is not an activity plan that would best conserve the client's energy without compromising physical or mental health because it can neglect the client's social and emotional needs, as well as isolate the client from their support system.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Accommodation refers to the ability of the eyes to adjust and focus on objects at different distances. When a client's pupils constrict as they change focus from a far object to a near object, it indicates that their pupils are reacting appropriately to accommodate the change in focus.
To document this finding accurately, the practical nurse (PN) should document "Pupils reactive to accommodation." This statement captures the observation that the pupils are constricting in response to the client changing their focus from a far object to a near object. It indicates normal pupillary response and accommodation.
Let's briefly evaluate the other options:
a) Consensual pupillary constriction present.
Consensual pupillary constriction refers to the simultaneous constriction of both pupils when light is shone into one eye. This finding is not directly related to accommodation or the client's change in focus.
Therefore, it is not the appropriate documentation for the given scenario.
b) Nystagmus present with pupillary focus.
Nystagmus refers to involuntary eye movements that can affect the alignment and focus of the eyes. The presence of nystagmus is not mentioned in the scenario, and it is not directly related to the client's change in focus. Therefore, it is not the appropriate documentation for the given scenario.
d) Peripheral vision intact.
Peripheral vision refers to the ability to see objects outside the central visual field. While important for assessing visual function, it is not directly relevant to the observed pupillary response during accommodation. Therefore, it is not the appropriate documentation for the given scenario.
In summary, when a client's pupils constrict as they change focus from a far object to a near object, the practical nurse should document "Pupils reactive to accommodation" to accurately describe the observed pupillary response during the accommodation process.
Correct Answer is ["B","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Continuing with the triage process is not an immediate intervention that needs to be taken by the triage nurse because it can expose more people to the chemical spill and worsen their condition. The triage nurse should stop the triage process and alert the emergency department staff about the potential contamination.
Choice B reason: Evacuating the emergency department is an immediate intervention that needs to be taken by the triage nurse because it can prevent further exposure and harm to other clients, staff, and visitors. The emergency department should be cleared and sealed until it is safe to re-enter.
Choice C reason: Placing the client in a private room is not an immediate intervention that needs to be taken by the triage nurse because it can contaminate the room and its equipment, as well as pose a risk to anyone who enters or leaves the room. The client should be isolated in a designated area for decontamination.
Choice D reason: Treating the client after contaminated items are removed is not an immediate intervention that needs to be taken by the triage nurse because it can delay the treatment and increase the absorption of the chemical into the body. The client should be treated as soon as possible after decontamination.
Choice E reason: Sending the client and EMS crew to decontamination is an immediate intervention that needs to be taken by the triage nurse because it can remove or neutralize the chemical from their skin, clothing, and equipment, as well as reduce their symptoms and complications. The client and EMS crew should be directed to a designated area for decontamination.
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