The nurse is educating a patient with osteoporosis about fall prevention strategies at home and in the hospital. Which statement by the patient indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?
“I will wear non-slip socks while in the hospital to reduce my risk of falling."
“I will place small rugs throughout my house to prevent slipping."
"At home, I should not wear my glasses nearby to avoid missteps."
“I don't need to do weight-bearing exercises because they won't help my bones."
The Correct Answer is A
A. "I will wear non-slip socks while in the hospital to reduce my risk of falling." Wearing non-slip socks provides better traction and reduces the risk of slipping, which is especially important for patients with osteoporosis who are at higher risk for fractures.
B. "I will place small rugs throughout my house to prevent slipping." Small rugs can be a tripping hazard and increase the risk of falls. Patients should be advised to remove loose rugs or secure them with non-slip backing.
C. "At home, I should not wear my glasses nearby to avoid missteps." Patients should always wear their prescribed glasses to ensure clear vision and reduce the risk of tripping over obstacles. Poor vision can contribute to falls.
D. "I don't need to do weight-bearing exercises because they won't help my bones." Weight-bearing exercises, such as walking and resistance training, help maintain bone density and reduce the risk of osteoporosis-related fractures.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Impetigo. Impetigo is a highly contagious bacterial skin infection, often caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It is characterized by honey-colored crusted lesions, especially around the mouth and extremities.
B. Scabies. Scabies presents as intensely itchy burrows or papules, often in the web spaces of the fingers, wrists, and axillae, rather than honey-colored crusts.
C. Herpes simplex virus. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) typically causes grouped vesicular lesions on an erythematous base, not crusted honey-colored lesions.
D. Tinea corporis. Tinea corporis (ringworm) presents as red, scaly, annular lesions with central clearing, not honey-colored crusts.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Stage I. A Stage I pressure ulcer is characterized by intact skin with non-blanchable erythema. The affected area may feel warmer or firmer than surrounding skin.
B. Stage II. A Stage II pressure ulcer involves partial-thickness skin loss, often presenting as a shallow open ulcer or intact/blistered skin. Since the skin is still intact in this scenario, it is not Stage II.
C. Stage III. A Stage III pressure ulcer involves full-thickness skin loss with visible subcutaneous tissue but no exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. This does not match the description of an intact but reddened area.
D. Stage IV. A Stage IV pressure ulcer involves full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. This is much more severe than the described case.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.