The nurse is observing an infant and notes that the infant is restless, wide-awake but quiet. The mother reports that her baby often is awake for hours at a time and is very fidgety. How would the nurse respond to her observation?
Since the infant is often awake for long periods, the nurse needs to talk to the doctor about prescribing some medication to calm the child.
The nurse should report the infant’s behavior to her supervisor for further investigation.
The nurse should do a more in-depth investigation to determine why the infant is awake so much and is restless.
Since the mother reports that the infant’s behavior is normal, there is no need for further investigation.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Prescribing medication to calm an infant is premature without investigating the cause of restlessness and prolonged wakefulness. An in-depth assessment identifies underlying issues like medical or environmental factors, making this reactive and incorrect compared to a thorough evaluation of the infant’s behavior.
Choice B reason: Reporting to a supervisor is unnecessary before assessing the infant’s restlessness and wakefulness. Conducting an in-depth investigation allows the nurse to gather data on potential causes, making this less direct and incorrect compared to initiating a thorough assessment of the infant’s condition first.
Choice C reason: Restlessness and prolonged wakefulness in an infant warrant an in-depth investigation to identify causes like medical issues, feeding problems, or environmental factors. This aligns with pediatric nursing assessment principles, ensuring a comprehensive approach to the infant’s behavior, making it the correct response for the nurse.
Choice D reason: Assuming the behavior is normal because the mother reports it dismisses potential underlying issues causing restlessness. An in-depth investigation is needed to rule out medical or environmental factors, making this incorrect, as it risks overlooking conditions requiring intervention in the infant’s care.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Stating that older men will die without exams exaggerates the risk, as testicular cancer is rare in the elderly and treatable. Awareness at age 15 is more relevant, making this inaccurate and incorrect for indicating a successful understanding of self-exam importance in the session.
Choice B reason: Recognizing that testicular cancer can affect teens (peak incidence in young males) shows understanding of personal risk at age 15. This aligns with health education goals for testicular self-exams, making it the correct comment indicating a successful session outcome for the high school boys.
Choice C reason: Mentioning a family history is relevant but does not show understanding of the need for self-exams at a young age. Awareness of personal risk at 15 is more direct, making this less indicative and incorrect for session success in teaching testicular self-examination.
Choice D reason: Delaying self-exams to the 20s underestimates the risk in teens, where testicular cancer incidence peaks. Recognizing risk at 15 reflects better comprehension, making this incorrect, as it misaligns with the urgency of early self-exam education for the high school students.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: A complete fracture occurs when bone fragments are fully separated, disrupting the bone’s continuity. This aligns with orthopedic definitions, as separation indicates a break through the entire bone, requiring intervention. The nurse’s explanation matches this, making it the correct term for separated fracture fragments in children, consistent with pediatric trauma care.
Choice B reason: An incomplete fracture involves a partial break, with fragments not fully separated, common in children’s flexible bones. The question specifies separated fragments, which does not fit this definition. This choice is incorrect, as it contradicts the description of a complete separation of bone fragments in the context of fracture classification.
Choice C reason: A spiral fracture is caused by twisting, with a helical break pattern, but separation of fragments is not its defining feature. Complete fractures specifically describe separated fragments, making this incorrect, as spiral refers to shape, not the extent of fragment separation in fractures, per orthopedic terminology.
Choice D reason: A greenstick fracture is an incomplete break where one side bends and the other cracks, typical in children. Separated fragments indicate a complete fracture, not a greenstick, making this incorrect, as greenstick fractures do not involve full separation of bone fragments as described in the nurse’s explanation.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
