The nurse is performing tracheostomy care for a client who underwent a laryngectomy for laryngeal cancer. During the procedure, the client begins to cough and is unable to clear the secretions. After the nurse suctions the airway, which finding indicates the intervention was effective?
Absence of coarse crackles.
Increase in respiratory rate.
Increase in breath sounds.
Absence of fine crackles.
The Correct Answer is A
A) Correct - The absence of coarse crackles indicates that the airway has been cleared of secretions effectively, and the lung sounds are clearer.
B) Incorrect - An increase in respiratory rate could indicate distress rather than the effectiveness of the intervention.
C) Incorrect - An increase in breath sounds may not necessarily indicate the effectiveness of the intervention, as the quality of breath sounds matters more than the increase.
D) Incorrect - The absence of fine crackles might not directly indicate the effectiveness of the intervention, as other factors can influence lung sounds.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Incorrect- While monitoring urinary output is important for overall assessment, it is not the most critical intervention in this situation of suspected stroke. The client's neurological symptoms take precedence.
B) Incorrect- Positioning might be relevant to preventing complications, but it is not the highest priority intervention in this situation. The focus should be on assessing the client's neurological status and determining appropriate intervention.
C) Incorrect- Although head positioning is relevant for intracranial pressure management, it is not the immediate priority. The nurse should first assess the time of symptom onset and determine if the client is experiencing an acute stroke.
D) Correct- The client's symptoms, including sudden severe headache, facial numbness, facial droop, and weakness on one side, are suggestive of a stroke. The nurse should prioritize assessing the time of symptom onset, as time is a crucial factor in determining the appropriate intervention. Rapid intervention can improve outcomes in stroke cases, especially when considering interventions like thrombolytic therapy. The other options are not as directly relevant to the immediate management of a suspected stroke.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect - The APTT value being two times the control value indicates that the client's anticoagulation is within the therapeutic range. There is no need to increase the warfarin dose.
B) Correct - With the APTT value within the target range and the PT and INR values also normal, the nurse should continue the same dose of warfarin and withhold the heparin.
C) Incorrect - Decreasing the heparin dose is not indicated, as the client's APTT is already within the therapeutic range.
D) Incorrect - Increasing the heparin dose and decreasing the warfarin dose is not necessary, as the client's anticoagulation levels are appropriate.
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