The nurse is performing a routine dressing change for a patient with a stage 3 pressure injury that is red with significant granulation.
The wound has a gauze dressing covering the area. Which action should the nurse implement?
Leave the dressing off until consulting with the healthcare provider.
Apply a hydrocolloidal gel dressing.
Increase the frequency of the dressing changes.
Replace the gauze with a transparent dressing.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Leaving the dressing off would expose the wound to air and potential contamination, which could delay healing and increase the risk of infection.
While consulting with the healthcare provider is always an option, it's not necessary in this case as the nurse has the knowledge and skills to select an appropriate dressing.
Additionally, leaving the wound uncovered could cause pain and discomfort to the patient, as well as potentially disrupt the delicate granulation tissue that has already formed.
Choice C rationale:
Increasing the frequency of dressing changes could disrupt the healing process and irritate the wound bed.
It's generally recommended to change dressings only as often as necessary to keep the wound clean and moist. Excessive dressing changes can also be costly and time-consuming for both the patient and the healthcare provider. Choice D rationale:
Transparent dressings are not ideal for stage 3 pressure injuries with significant granulation tissue. These dressings are more suitable for wounds with minimal exudate and that are not actively healing. Transparent dressings can also adhere to the wound bed, causing pain and trauma upon removal.
Choice B rationale:
Hydrocolloidal gel dressings are a good choice for stage 3 pressure injuries with granulation tissue because they: Provide a moist wound environment, which promotes healing.
Absorb exudate, which helps to prevent maceration of the surrounding skin. Form a protective barrier over the wound, which helps to prevent infection.
Are comfortable for the patient and can be left in place for several days.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hypothermia is a condition in which the body's core temperature falls below 95°F (35°C). It is not directly indicated by the client's vital signs as presented in the question.
Other factors that would more strongly suggest hypothermia include exposure to cold environments, immersion in cold water, or impaired thermoregulation due to conditions like hypothyroidism or alcohol intoxication.
Choice C rationale:
Hypotension is a condition in which blood pressure is abnormally low. It is also not directly indicated by the client's vital signs as presented in the question.
Hypertension, on the other hand, is a condition in which blood pressure is abnormally high.
The client's history of hypertension, and the fact that he takes enalapril (an antihypertensive medication), suggests that he may be more likely to experience hypertension than hypotension.
Choice D rationale:
Hypertension, as mentioned above, is a condition in which blood pressure is abnormally high.
While it's possible that the client is experiencing hypertension, the question specifically asks about the condition indicated by the client's vital signs.
Tachypnea, or rapid breathing, is a more direct indication of the client's respiratory distress, which is a common symptom of pneumonia.
Choice B rationale:
Tachypnea is the most likely condition indicated by the client's vital signs.
Tachypnea is often a sign of respiratory distress, which can be caused by a variety of conditions, including pneumonia. When a person has pneumonia, their lungs become inflamed and filled with fluid, making it difficult to breathe.
This can lead to rapid, shallow breathing, which is called tachypnea.
Other signs of respiratory distress that may be present in a client with pneumonia include: Coughing
Wheezing Chest pain
Feeling short of breath
Use of accessory muscles to breathe (e.g., muscles in the neck and chest) Nasal flaring
Cyanosis (a bluish tint to the skin)
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Anorexia is a common symptom of cirrhosis, but it is not the most immediate concern in a client with esophageal varices.
Anorexia can result from various factors, including impaired liver function, hormonal imbalances, early satiety due to ascites,
and nausea.
While it's important to address anorexia to maintain nutritional status, it doesn't directly indicate a life-threatening
complication like bleeding varices.
Choice B rationale:
Brown, foamy urine is a characteristic of kidney problems, specifically proteinuria.
It's not directly associated with esophageal varices or their complications.
While cirrhosis can affect kidney function due to fluid imbalances and impaired filtering, brown, foamy urine wouldn't be the
primary indicator of bleeding varices.
Choice C rationale:
Clay-colored stool is a sign of biliary obstruction, which can occur in cirrhosis due to impaired bile flow.
However, it's not a direct indicator of bleeding varices.
Clay-colored stool results from a lack of bile pigments in the stool, which give it its typical brown color.
Choice D rationale:
Hematemesis, or vomiting of blood, is the most critical symptom to monitor in a client with esophageal varices.
Here's why:
Esophageal varices are enlarged, swollen veins in the esophagus that develop due to increased pressure in the portal venous
system, a common consequence of cirrhosis.
These varices are fragile and prone to rupture, which can lead to massive, life-threatening bleeding.
Hematemesis is a clear sign that variceal bleeding has occurred and requires immediate intervention.
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