A client is receiving IV heparin and oral warfarin after a pulmonary embolism (PE). The nurse determines the client's activated partial prothromboplastin time (APTT) value is two times the control value; the prothrombin time (PT) level is the same as the control, and the international normalized ratio (INR) is 1. Which protocol prescription should the nurse implement?
Reference Range:
Activated Partial Prothromboplastin Time (APTT) [Anticoagulant therapy: 1.5 to 2 times the control value in seconds.] Prothromboplastin Time (PT) [Anticoagulant therapy: greater than 1.5 to 2 times the control value.] International Normalized Ratio (INR) [0.8 to 1.1]
Increase the warfarin dose.
Withhold the heparin and continue the same dose of warfarin.
Decrease the heparin dose.
D Increase the heparin dose and decrease the warfarin dose.
The Correct Answer is B
A) Incorrect - The APTT value being two times the control value indicates that the client's anticoagulation is within the therapeutic range. There is no need to increase the warfarin dose.
B) Correct - With the APTT value within the target range and the PT and INR values also normal, the nurse should continue the same dose of warfarin and withhold the heparin.
C) Incorrect - Decreasing the heparin dose is not indicated, as the client's APTT is already within the therapeutic range.
D) Incorrect - Increasing the heparin dose and decreasing the warfarin dose is not necessary, as the client's anticoagulation levels are appropriate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
d. “May I sit with you for a while?"
This comment shows empathy, respect, and support for the client, without being intrusive or judgmental. The PN acknowledges the client's feelings and offers companionship, which can help reduce isolation and loneliness.
The other options are not correct because:
- This comment may be perceived as coercive or dismissive of the client's feelings, as it tries to persuade the client to do something he does not want to do or enjoy.
- This comment may be perceived as accusatory or interrogatory, as it questions the client's decision or motive for staying in his room.
- This comment may be perceived as minimizing or invalidating the client's feelings, as it implies that the client should not be sad or that his family is doing enough for him.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
- Urinary output is an important indicator of fluid balance and kidney function. After delivery, a woman may experience increased urinary output due to the loss of excess fluid that was retained during pregnancy and the diuretic effect of oxytocin, which is released during breastfeeding. This is a normal and expected finding in the postpartum period.
- However, increased urinary output may also be a sign of urinary retention, which is the inability to empty the bladder completely. Urinary retention can occur due to trauma to the bladder or urethra during delivery, swelling or hematoma of the perineum, epidural anesthesia, or decreased bladder sensation. Urinary retention can lead to complications such as infection, bladder distension, or postpartum hemorrhage.
- Therefore, when a woman who delivered a normal newborn 24 hours ago reports that she seems to be urinating every hour or so, the practical nurse (PN) should measure the next voiding, and then palpate the client's bladder. This will help to assess the amount and quality of urine and the presence or absence of bladder distension. A normal urine output is about 30 ml per hour, and a normal bladder should feel soft and empty after voiding. If the urine output is low or high, or if the bladder feels firm or full after voiding, the PN should report these findings to the primary healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer, while options A, C, and D are incorrect.
Option A is incorrect because catheterizing the client for residual urine volume is an invasive procedure that should only be done if indicated by the primary healthcare provider.
Option C is incorrect because evaluating for normal involution and massaging the fundus are related to uterine function, not urinary function.
Option D is incorrect because obtaining a specimen for urine culture and sensitivity is not necessary unless there are signs of infection, such as fever, dysuria, or foul-smelling urine.
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