An older adult client with pernicious anemia has been receiving daily injections of cyanocobalamin for two weeks and reports that the injections are painful. The nurse notes that the client's hematocrit is 43% (0.43 volume fraction). Which action should the nurse implement?

Reference Range:

Hematocrit (Hct) [37% to 47% (0.37 to 0.47 volume fraction)]

Instruct the client that since the hematocrit remains low, the daily injections are still necessary.

Notify the healthcare provider of the patient's hematocrit level so the frequency of injections can be reduced.

Advise the client that the medication is having the desired effect, but daily injections will continue to be needed for life for this chronic condition.

Offer to instruct the client in self-administration techniques to improve the client's sense of control over the painful daily injections.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Instruct the client that since the hematocrit remains low, the daily injections are still necessary: A hematocrit of 43% is within the normal range, suggesting the client’s anemia is improving. If the hematocrit were still low, continuing daily injections would be appropriate, but this is not the case here.

B. Notify the healthcare provider of the client’s hematocrit level so the frequency of injections can be reduced: Since the hematocrit is normal, there is no need to notify the healthcare provider specifically for changing the injection frequency based solely on the hematocrit level. Reducing injection frequency should be based on the overall treatment plan and not just the current hematocrit.
C. Advise the client that the medication is having the desired effect, but daily injections will continue to be needed for life for this chronic condition: While the medication may be effective, informing the client about the potential for less frequent injections could improve adherence and reduce discomfort, if the healthcare provider approves.
D. Offer to instruct the client in self-administration techniques to improve the client's sense of control over the painful daily injections: Teaching self-administration can empower the client and potentially reduce discomfort by allowing the client to become more comfortable with the process. It also offers the opportunity for the client to manage their injections more conveniently and with greater control.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Fingerstick glucose: While important in managing diabetes or hypoglycemia, it is not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of lactulose in treating hepatic encephalopathy.
B. Stool color and character: Lactulose acts as a laxative, and its effectiveness can affect stool characteristics. However, stool color and character are less direct indicators of therapeutic response compared to serum ammonia levels.
C. Serum hepatic enzymes: While liver enzyme levels can provide information about liver function, they do not directly measure the effectiveness of lactulose in managing hepatic encephalopathy. Serum ammonia levels are more specific for this purpose.
D. Serum electrolytes and ammonia: Lactulose is used to treat hepatic encephalopathy by reducing blood ammonia levels. Monitoring serum ammonia levels provides direct feedback on the effectiveness of the medication in treating hepatic encephalopathy. Additionally, serum electrolytes should be monitored because lactulose can lead to electrolyte imbalances due to its laxative effect.

A. Administer the scheduled dose. B. Discontinue the warfarin schedule. C. Withhold warfarin for 24 hours D. Obtain another INR analysis immediately.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Administer the scheduled dose: Administering the scheduled dose of warfarin when the INR is 5.0 is not appropriate because this INR level is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding. Warfarin dosing should be adjusted based on INR levels to prevent complications such as excessive bleeding.
B) Discontinue the warfarin schedule: Completely discontinuing warfarin may not be necessary unless there are additional factors or signs of bleeding. It is essential to take appropriate action based on the INR level, but discontinuation should be guided by further evaluation and healthcare provider recommendations.
C) Withhold warfarin for 24 hours: Withholding the dose of warfarin is the correct action when faced with an elevated INR of 5.0. This intervention is crucial to prevent potential bleeding complications while waiting for further evaluation and guidance from the healthcare provider regarding additional management, such as administration of vitamin K or other reversal agents.

D) Obtain another INR analysis immediately: While obtaining another INR analysis can be helpful in monitoring trends, it is not the immediate priority if the INR is already 5.0. The primary action should be to withhold the dose and consult with the healthcare provider to determine the appropriate next steps for managing the elevated INR and ensuring patient safety.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with hepatic encephalopathy is receiving lactulose. Which assessment provides the nurse with the best information to evaluate the client's therapeutic response to the medication?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse is preparing to administer warfarin sodium 10 mg PO to a client whose international normalized ratio (INR) is 5.0. Which intervention should the nurse implement? Reference Range: International 1 normalized ratio (INR) [INR: 0.8 to 1.1]

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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