The nurse is providing an in-service on non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Which of the following medications is a first-generation NSAID that inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes?
Celecoxib Celebrex
Morphine sulfate (Astramorph)
Metformin (Glucophage)
Ibuprofen (Motrin)
The Correct Answer is D
Rationale
A. Celecoxib is a second-generation NSAID that specifically inhibits COX-2 enzymes and is less likely to cause gastrointestinal side effects compared to first-generation NSAIDs.
B. Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic and does not have NSAID properties. It works by binding to opioid receptors to relieve pain.
C. Metformin is an oral medication used to manage blood glucose in type 2 diabetes and is not an NSAID.
D. Ibuprofen is a first-generation NSAID that inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes, reducing pain, inflammation, and fever.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Docusate sodium (Colace): This is a stool softener and is used to treat constipation, not diarrhea.
B. Sucralfate (Carafate): This medication is used to treat ulcers, not diarrhea.
C. Omeprazole (Prilosec): This is a proton pump inhibitor, used to treat gastric acid-related conditions, not diarrhea.
D. Loperamide (Imodium): Loperamide is an anti-diarrheal medication that slows down gut motility and is indicated to treat diarrhea.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Butorphanol (Stadol) is an opioid agonist-antagonist used for pain management. It is more likely to cause drowsiness or sedation rather than insomnia.
B. Abstinence syndrome, or withdrawal symptoms, can occur in patients who are dependent on opioids. Butorphanol can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in individuals who are dependent on opioid agonists.
C. Migraines are not a typical complication of butorphanol. However, butorphanol is used for pain relief, which can sometimes include migraines, but it does not cause them.
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