The nurse is providing an in-service on non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Which of the following medications is a first-generation NSAID that inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes?

Celecoxib Celebrex

Morphine sulfate (Astramorph)

Metformin (Glucophage)

Ibuprofen (Motrin)

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Rationale
A.   Celecoxib is a second-generation NSAID that specifically inhibits COX-2 enzymes and is less likely to cause gastrointestinal side effects compared to first-generation NSAIDs.
B.   Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic and does not have NSAID properties. It works by binding to opioid receptors to relieve pain.
C.   Metformin is an oral medication used to manage blood glucose in type 2 diabetes and is not an NSAID.
D.   Ibuprofen is a first-generation NSAID that inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes, reducing pain, inflammation, and fever.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Inhaling and exhaling quickly through pursed lips does not achieve the intended purpose of pursed-lip breathing. This technique is designed to promote slower, controlled breathing to prevent airway collapse and improve oxygen exchange.

B. Exhaling quickly through pursed lips negates the benefits of pursed-lip breathing. The purpose of this technique is to prolong exhalation, reducing air trapping and improving ventilation.

C. Inhaling deeply through the nose and exhaling slowly through pursed lips is the correct technique for pursed-lip breathing. This method helps maintain open airways, reduces dyspnea, and promotes relaxation.

D. Inhaling deeply through pursed lips and exhaling quickly through the nose is not consistent with proper pursed-lip breathing. The inhalation should be through the nose, and exhalation should be slow and controlled through pursed lips.

A. Morphine sulfate acts as an antagonist on the mu and kappa receptors. B. Morphine sulfate acts as an agonist on the mu and kappa receptors C. Morphine sulfate has a less analgesic effect compared to butorphanol. D. Morphine sulfate has a low potential for abuse, causing little euphoria.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Morphine is an opioid agonist, not an antagonist. It binds to the mu and kappa receptors to produce its analgesic effects.
B. Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic that works by binding to the mu and kappa receptors in the brain and spinal cord, which produces pain relief.
C. This statement is not accurate. Morphine sulfate typically has a stronger analgesic effect than butorphanol, a partial opioid agonist.
D. Morphine sulfate has a high potential for abuse due to its euphoric effects and is classified as a controlled substance.

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The nurse is providing an in-service on non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Which of the following medications is a first-generation NSAID that inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse teaches a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about pursed-lip breathing (PLB). Which action by the patient would indicate to the nurse that no further teaching is needed?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is educating a client about a new prescription for morphine sulfate (Astramorph). Which of the following statement should the nurse include in the teaching about morphine?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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