The nurse is providing an in-service on non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Which of the following medications is a first-generation NSAID that inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes?
Celecoxib Celebrex
Morphine sulfate (Astramorph)
Metformin (Glucophage)
Ibuprofen (Motrin)
The Correct Answer is D
Rationale
A. Celecoxib is a second-generation NSAID that specifically inhibits COX-2 enzymes and is less likely to cause gastrointestinal side effects compared to first-generation NSAIDs.
B. Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic and does not have NSAID properties. It works by binding to opioid receptors to relieve pain.
C. Metformin is an oral medication used to manage blood glucose in type 2 diabetes and is not an NSAID.
D. Ibuprofen is a first-generation NSAID that inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes, reducing pain, inflammation, and fever.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Digoxin: This medication is used for heart failure and atrial fibrillation, not for constipation.
B. Sildenafil: This medication is used to treat erectile dysfunction, not constipation.
C. Lactulose: Lactulose is an osmotic laxative commonly used to treat constipation. It works by drawing water into the stool to make bowel movements easier.
D. Spironolactone: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic used to treat heart failure and fluid retention, not constipation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Respiratory depression is a hallmark sign of opioid toxicity. A rate of 7 breaths per minute indicates severe respiratory depression, which can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention with naloxone.
B. Anxiety is not typically associated with opioid toxicity, but rather may be a sign of withdrawal or other conditions.
C. Fever is not a sign of opioid toxicity. It may be a sign of infection or other medical issues.
D. Hypertension is not typical of opioid toxicity; opioids usually cause hypotension, not hypertension.
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