The nurse is providing instructions about the fluticasone propionate and salmeterol combination inhaler. Which statement about this inhaler is accurate?
It is used for the prevention of bronchospasms.
It needs to be used with a spacer for best results.
Patients need to avoid drinking water for 1 hour after taking this drug.
It is indicated for the treatment of acute therapy.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Fluticasone/salmeterol is a combination of an inhaled corticosteroid and a long-acting beta-2 agonist used for maintenance therapy to prevent bronchospasms in asthma or COPD. Fluticasone reduces inflammation, while salmeterol provides sustained bronchodilation, making it effective for long-term control, not acute relief.
Choice B reason: Using a spacer with fluticasone/salmeterol is not mandatory, though it may improve drug delivery in some patients. Spacers enhance lung deposition for metered-dose inhalers, but this combination is often delivered via dry powder inhalers, which do not require spacers, making this statement inaccurate.
Choice C reason: Avoiding water for 1 hour after using fluticasone/salmeterol is unnecessary. Patients should rinse their mouth after inhalation to prevent oral thrush, but water restriction is not required. The drug’s local action in the lungs is unaffected by oral hydration, making this instruction incorrect.
Choice D reason: Fluticasone/salmeterol is not indicated for acute therapy. Its slow onset (salmeterol takes 20-30 minutes) makes it unsuitable for acute bronchospasm. It is used for maintenance to prevent symptoms, while short-acting beta-agonists like albuterol are used for acute asthma or COPD exacerbations.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Orange-tinged urine is an expected effect of rifampin, not a therapeutic response. It results from the drug’s red-orange metabolite excreted in urine, not an indicator of tuberculosis resolution. Clinical improvement, like reduced symptoms and negative cultures, better reflects the effectiveness of antitubercular therapy.
Choice B reason: A therapeutic response to antitubercular therapy is indicated by decreased symptoms (e.g., cough, fever), improved chest radiographs (reduced infiltrates), and negative sputum cultures, showing reduced Mycobacterium tuberculosis burden. These objective measures confirm the drugs, like isoniazid and rifampin, are effectively killing the bacteria and resolving the infection.
Choice C reason: Increased tolerance to antitubercular therapy or fewer adverse effects does not indicate a therapeutic response. Tolerance reflects patient adaptation to side effects, not bacterial clearance. Objective measures like symptom reduction and negative cultures are needed to confirm the therapy’s effectiveness against tuberculosis.
Choice D reason: Negative PPD results are not used to monitor active tuberculosis treatment. PPD tests detect latent tuberculosis or prior exposure, not active disease. Therapeutic response is assessed through symptom improvement, chest imaging, and sputum cultures, which directly indicate the reduction of active Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Quinolones, like ciprofloxacin, inhibit bacterial DNA gyrase and have no structural similarity to penicillin. They are safe in penicillin-allergic patients, as there is no cross-reactivity. Their side effects, like tendonitis, are unrelated to penicillin’s beta-lactam ring, making this class safe.
Choice B reason: Sulfonamides, like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, inhibit bacterial folate synthesis and are not structurally related to penicillin. They do not cause cross-reactivity in penicillin-allergic patients. Their hypersensitivity reactions are distinct, making them a safe alternative for patients with penicillin allergies.
Choice C reason: Cephalosporins share a beta-lactam ring with penicillins, leading to a 5-10% cross-reactivity risk in penicillin-allergic patients. Allergic reactions, like anaphylaxis, may occur, so the nurse should question cephalosporin orders, especially for first-generation agents, to ensure patient safety.
Choice D reason: Tetracyclines, like doxycycline, inhibit protein synthesis and have no structural similarity to penicillin’s beta-lactam ring. They are safe in penicillin-allergic patients, with no cross-reactivity risk. Their side effects, like photosensitivity, are unrelated to penicillin allergies, making this class safe.
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