The nurse is reviewing a client's electronic health record before assessing her mouth. Which of the following diagnoses would the nurse recognize as an indication for immediate medical follow up?
Thrush
Leukoplakia
Gingivitis
Canker sore
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Thrush, a fungal infection from Candida, needs treatment but isn’t immediately urgent unless severe. It’s common in immunocompromised states, manageable with antifungals, lacking the acute, life-threatening potential requiring instant medical escalation in most typical cases here.
Choice B reason: Leukoplakia, white patches in the mouth, may signal precancerous changes linked to oral cancer. Its potential malignancy demands immediate follow-up for biopsy and intervention, distinguishing it as the most urgent diagnosis among these options clearly and critically.
Choice C reason: Gingivitis, gum inflammation, requires dental care but isn’t an immediate medical emergency. It’s reversible with hygiene, not posing the rapid progression risk of leukoplakia, making it less urgent for prompt physician referral in this context fully.
Choice D reason: Canker sores, benign ulcers, heal without intervention and lack systemic threat. Unlike leukoplakia’s cancer risk, they don’t warrant urgent follow-up, remaining a self-limiting condition not necessitating immediate medical escalation beyond routine management here entirely.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: PSA isn’t highly reliable alone; false positives occur. It’s a screening tool, not definitive, requiring biopsy for diagnosis, making this inaccurate and less informative than explaining its broader causes for this client fully here.
Choice B reason: PSA complements, not replaces, digital rectal exam (DRE). Both detect cancer; PSA misses some tumors DRE finds, rendering this false and incomplete for teaching screening essentials to a committed client entirely here fully.
Choice C reason: Annual PSA at 25 is too early; guidelines suggest 50, or 40-45 with family history. This overstates frequency and timing, misguiding the client on evidence-based screening practices for prostate cancer risk comprehensively here.
Choice D reason: PSA rises with cancer, BPH, or infection, educating the client on its non-specificity. This accurate teaching supports informed screening with family history, clarifying why follow-up is key, making it the best response accurately here.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Chronic rhinitis affects nasal passages, not oral cancer risk, which ties to tobacco, alcohol, or HPV. This question targets sinus issues, missing key carcinogenic exposures or immunosuppression linked to squamous cell carcinoma in the mouth entirely here.
Choice B reason: Immunosuppressive therapy, like post-transplant drugs, raises oral cancer risk by impairing immune surveillance against HPV or malignant cells. This directly identifies a major risk factor, aligning with health promotion goals to detect oral cancer precursors effectively and accurately.
Choice C reason: Dental visit frequency reflects care access, not specific oral cancer risks like smoking. It’s indirect, missing direct links to immunosuppression or carcinogens, making it less effective for pinpointing etiology in a health promotion context fully here.
Choice D reason: Chewing or swallowing difficulty may signal advanced cancer, not risk factors. It’s a symptom, not a preventive focus, unlike immunosuppression, which precedes disease, reducing its utility for early identification in this educational assessment entirely and clearly.
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