The nurse is teaching a client with hypertension (HTN) about newly prescribed amlodipine (Norvasc). Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Choice A rationale

A low sodium, high-calorie diet does not directly address severe pain caused by renal colic. Dietary interventions are long-term strategies for kidney health but are not immediate priorities for acute pain relief. Renal colic pain requires prompt management with pharmacological interventions to alleviate severe discomfort. Adjusting dietary intake may support prevention but would not resolve the acute symptoms, emphasizing that this is not the first-line measure for this clinical situation.

Choice B rationale

Increasing fluid intake to 3–4 L/day is beneficial for flushing out kidney stones and preventing further stone formation. However, this intervention does not directly alleviate severe pain experienced during an episode of renal colic. While adequate hydration is crucial for long-term management, acute pain demands immediate pharmacological relief. Therefore, fluid intake implementation is secondary when compared to pain management priorities.

Choice C rationale

Tamsulosin (Flomax) is an alpha-blocker that promotes the passage of kidney stones by relaxing the smooth muscles of the ureter. Although effective in expediting stone passage, it does not provide immediate pain relief for severe renal colic. Its role is valuable for the resolution of the obstruction but does not address acute symptoms. Administering pain medication remains a priority to manage distress caused by colic episodes.

Choice D rationale

Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic that directly targets severe pain associated with renal colic. It binds to mu-opioid receptors in the central nervous system, producing analgesia and a calming effect. Its rapid onset and effectiveness in severe pain management make it the first prescription to implement. Pain relief improves the client's comfort and allows for addressing underlying causes of colic after stabilizing acute distress.

Choice A rationale

Thrombopoiesis, the process of platelet production, is not typically a direct cause of secondary immune thrombocytopenic purpura. This condition often stems from an underlying immune or viral trigger rather than bone marrow dysfunction.

Choice B rationale

HIV is a recognized cause of secondary ITP due to immune dysregulation and increased platelet destruction. It is essential to test for HIV in clients with newly diagnosed ITP to identify and manage the underlying condition effectively.

Choice C rationale

Hepatitis C virus is a common trigger for secondary ITP due to immune complex formation and platelet destruction. Testing for HCV is crucial for clients with thrombocytopenia to establish a precise etiology and guide treatment.

Choice D rationale

Von Willebrand disease primarily affects von Willebrand factor and is associated with qualitative or quantitative clotting issues rather than platelet destruction or secondary ITP. It is not routinely tested in this context.

Choice E rationale

Hemophilia B involves Factor IX deficiency leading to bleeding disorders but does not relate to immune-mediated platelet destruction. Testing for hemophilia B is irrelevant in clients suspected of secondary ITP.