The nurse is explaining to a client diagnosed with heart failure that the client's heart muscle has thickened on the right side and is not able to fill properly.
The nurse is explaining which of the following types of heart failure?
Right and left-sided diastolic.
Right-sided systolic and diastolic.
Right-sided diastolic.
Right-sided systolic.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Right-sided heart failure with thickened heart muscle refers specifically to the impaired filling capacity due to diastolic dysfunction. Diastolic dysfunction affects the filling phase, not the pumping phase. It may involve one side or both sides but is not explicitly described as right and left-sided diastolic in this context.
Choice B rationale
Right-sided systolic heart failure affects the pumping ability, while diastolic affects filling. Both conditions together do not explain the thickened myocardium impairing filling. A combination of systolic and diastolic failure typically includes both pumping and filling abnormalities rather than isolated thickening with poor filling.
Choice C rationale
Right-sided diastolic failure results from impaired ventricular relaxation and thickened myocardium, leading to reduced filling capacity. This type of failure involves the heart's inability to accommodate blood during diastole, consistent with the description of thickened heart muscle and poor filling on the right side.
Choice D rationale
Right-sided systolic failure involves impaired contractility and pumping of blood to the lungs, not poor filling caused by thickened muscle. Systolic dysfunction decreases the heart's output rather than affecting the filling phase described in this scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Medications, such as phosphodiesterase type-5 inhibitors (e.g., sildenafil), are typically the next line of treatment for erectile dysfunction (ED) after lifestyle modifications fail. These agents enhance blood flow to the penile tissues during sexual stimulation by inhibiting the breakdown of cyclic guanosine monophosphate, facilitating erectile function.
Choice B rationale
Negative-pressure devices, also known as vacuum erection devices, are considered third-line treatments and are typically used in clients for whom oral medications are contraindicated or have failed. These devices work by mechanically increasing blood flow to the penis but are less effective than pharmacological interventions.
Choice C rationale
Penile injections, such as alprostadil, are invasive and used as a later option when oral medications and devices are unsuccessful or contraindicated. These injections directly relax the smooth muscle to increase penile blood flow, but they are generally not first-line treatments.
Choice D rationale
Penis transplants are experimental and not recognized as a standard treatment for erectile dysfunction. This option is far from practical or feasible and is considered unsuitable for most clients, especially given the complexity of the condition.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A low sodium, high-calorie diet does not directly address severe pain caused by renal colic. Dietary interventions are long-term strategies for kidney health but are not immediate priorities for acute pain relief. Renal colic pain requires prompt management with pharmacological interventions to alleviate severe discomfort. Adjusting dietary intake may support prevention but would not resolve the acute symptoms, emphasizing that this is not the first-line measure for this clinical situation.
Choice B rationale
Increasing fluid intake to 3–4 L/day is beneficial for flushing out kidney stones and preventing further stone formation. However, this intervention does not directly alleviate severe pain experienced during an episode of renal colic. While adequate hydration is crucial for long-term management, acute pain demands immediate pharmacological relief. Therefore, fluid intake implementation is secondary when compared to pain management priorities.
Choice C rationale
Tamsulosin (Flomax) is an alpha-blocker that promotes the passage of kidney stones by relaxing the smooth muscles of the ureter. Although effective in expediting stone passage, it does not provide immediate pain relief for severe renal colic. Its role is valuable for the resolution of the obstruction but does not address acute symptoms. Administering pain medication remains a priority to manage distress caused by colic episodes.
Choice D rationale
Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic that directly targets severe pain associated with renal colic. It binds to mu-opioid receptors in the central nervous system, producing analgesia and a calming effect. Its rapid onset and effectiveness in severe pain management make it the first prescription to implement. Pain relief improves the client's comfort and allows for addressing underlying causes of colic after stabilizing acute distress.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.