Which observation by the nurse indicates that a male client diagnosed with kidney stones is experiencing renal colic?

Pain while urinating

Oliguria with hypoalbuminemia

Incontinence

Severe flank pain radiating to the testicle

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.   This is a symptom of urinary tract infection, not renal colic.
B.   This indicates kidney damage, which may occur as a complication of untreated kidney stones, but it's not a typical symptom of renal colic itself.
C.   This is not a symptom of renal colic.
D.   This is a classic symptom of renal colic, which is caused by the passage of a kidney stone through the ureter. The pain is often described as excruciating and can radiate to the groin or testicle.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Heparin acts quickly to provide immediate anticoagulation, while warfarin takes several days to reach therapeutic levels. Heparin ensures that the client is adequately anticoagulated during the initial phase while waiting for warfarin to take effect.
B. Neither heparin nor warfarin directly dissolves clots. They are both anticoagulants that prevent further clot formation and allow the body's natural processes (fibrinolysis) to break down the existing clot over time. The combination does not specifically facilitate the dissolution of clots.
C. This statement is misleading. The use of both medications is not primarily about reducing the doses. Instead, each medication has its own dosing based on the patient’s needs, and the combination is used for timing and efficacy rather than dose reduction.
D. While heparin does provide immediate anticoagulation, saying it provides "maximum protection" could be misleading. It does ensure effective anticoagulation in the short term, but the maximum effectis related to individual response and therapeutic levels, which vary. Additionally, once warfarin reaches therapeutic levels, it becomes the primary agent for long-term anticoagulation.

A. Prepare to administer prescribed epinephrine B. Assess the client's apical pulse and blood pressure C. Stop infusing the client's intravenous antibiotic D. Administer 4 liters of oxygen via nasal cannula

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. While epinephrine is crucial in cases of anaphylaxis, it should not be the first action taken. The immediate priority is to stop the offending medication.
B. While assessing vital signs is important, it is not the first action. The primary concern is to halt the exposure to the potential allergen.
C. The first action in this situation should be to immediately stop the infusion of the antibiotic. This prevents further exposure to the allergen and is critical to managing the potential anaphylactic reaction.

D. While providing oxygen may be necessary later if the client is hypoxic, the immediate priority is to stop the infusion of the antibiotic first. Administering oxygen is important but comes after halting the offending agent.

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Which observation by the nurse indicates that a male client diagnosed with kidney stones is experiencing renal colic?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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