The nurse is to record the intake and output of a 2-year-old patient. The patient is not toilet trained. Which measure would be most appropriate to include in the patient's plan of care?
Obtaining an order to have an indwelling urinary catheter inserted.
Weighing the patient's wet diapers prior to discarding them.
Sitting the patient on the bedpan at least every two hours.
Applying a pediatric urine collection device over the patient's urinary meatus.
The Correct Answer is B
Weighing the patient's wet diapers prior to discarding them.
Choice A rationale:
Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is invasive and not appropriate for a non-toilet-trained 2-year-old unless medically necessary.
Choice B rationale:
Weighing wet diapers is the most accurate way to measure urine output in a young child who isn't toilet trained. This method provides essential information for assessing hydration and kidney function.
Choice C rationale:
Sitting the patient on the bedpan every two hours is suitable for older children but may not be effective or tolerable for a 2-year-old.
Choice D rationale:
Applying a pediatric urine collection device is an option, but it might not be as accurate as weighing wet diapers and may cause discomfort for the child.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Giving the patient a soft tissue is not the initial action to take when dealing with clear liquid drainage from the nose. Assessing the content of the drainage is more crucial for appropriate management.
Choice B rationale:
Checking the drainage for glucose content is essential because the presence of glucose indicates that the drainage is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), which can occur with a skull fracture that involves the base of the skull.
Choice C rationale:
Obtaining a specimen of the drainage for culture and sensitivity is important, but it is not the initial action. Confirming the nature of the drainage takes precedence.
Choice D rationale:
Asking the father about nasal drainage before the injury is not as relevant as assessing the current drainage, which could be indicative of a CSF leak.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
X-linked dominant disorders are characterized by a mutation on the X chromosome that results in the expression of the trait in both males and females. Hemophilia, however, is more commonly associated with males, which is not consistent with an X-linked dominant pattern.
Choice B rationale:
Autosomal recessive disorders require the inheritance of two mutated alleles, one from each parent, to express the trait. Hemophilia does not follow this pattern, as the patient's sisters do not have the condition despite having affected parents.
Choice C rationale:
Autosomal dominant disorders only require the inheritance of one mutated allele from an affected parent to express the trait. Hemophilia does not align with an autosomal dominant pattern, as the patient's sisters would likely be affected if it were.
Choice D rationale:
Hemophilia is a classic example of an X-linked recessive disorder. The gene responsible for producing clotting factor is located on the X chromosome, and males have only one X chromosome, making them more susceptible to the disorder. Females, with two X chromosomes, usually act as carriers unless both X chromosomes carry the mutation.
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