The nurse observes generalized weakness and diminished deep tendon reflexes on the right side of an older adult client who has a history of a cerebrovascular accident. Which deep tendon reflex response should the nurse document to support the client's clinical assessment?
Right side deep tendon reflex 2+.
Right side deep tendon reflex 0.
Right side deep tendon reflex 4+.
Right side deep tendon reflex 1+.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Right side deep tendon reflex 2+: A 2+ reflex is considered normal and would not correlate with the nurse’s observation of diminished reflexes. Documenting 2+ would fail to reflect the neurological deficit noted in the assessment.
B. Right side deep tendon reflex 0: A 0 reflex indicates complete absence of a response, suggesting flaccid paralysis or severe lower motor neuron damage. The nurse observed diminished reflexes, not absent, so 0 would overstate the impairment.
C. Right side deep tendon reflex 4+: A 4+ reflex indicates hyperreflexia, often associated with upper motor neuron lesions, not weakness and diminished reflexes. This would contradict the nurse’s findings of decreased neuromuscular activity on the right side.
D. Right side deep tendon reflex 1+: A 1+ rating represents diminished or hypoactive reflexes, which aligns with the nurse’s findings of generalized weakness and reduced deep tendon activity. This accurately reflects the likely residual neurological effects post-CVA.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Ask if the client often feels weak or hungry: While important in overall diabetes assessment, weakness or hunger are more related to poor glucose control and they do not specifically indicate peripheral vascular changes such as shiny skin and hair loss.
B. Compare the range of motion of both legs: Assessing range of motion can be useful in evaluating joint or muscular issues but does not provide specific information about vascular status or circulation, which is the primary concern here.
C. Measure the client's capillary glucose: Blood glucose levels are essential in managing diabetes but do not assess the presence or severity of peripheral vascular disease, which can lead to changes in skin and hair growth on the lower legs.
D. Palpate the client's dorsalis pedis pulses: Shiny skin and hair loss on the legs suggest poor peripheral circulation, often related to peripheral arterial disease, a common complication of diabetes mellitus. High blood sugar levels can damage blood vessels over time, leading to narrowing and reduced blood flow, particularly in the lower extremities. Palpating dorsalis pedis pulses helps assess arterial blood flow and supports evaluation of vascular insufficiency.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Periumbilical pain localizing to right lower quadrant: This is a classic sign of appendicitis. The pain typically begins near the umbilicus and later migrates to the right lower quadrant (McBurney's point) as the inflammation progresses and irritates the parietal peritoneum. This localized pain pattern is a strong clinical indicator of appendicitis.
B. Anorexia progressing to nausea, vomiting, and fever: While these are common associated symptoms of appendicitis, they are nonspecific and can be seen in many gastrointestinal conditions such as gastroenteritis. Alone, they are not as definitive as localized right lower quadrant pain in confirming the diagnosis.
C. Diffuse abdominal pain with elevated neutrophil count: Diffuse abdominal pain suggests a more widespread issue, not the localized inflammation typically seen in early appendicitis. An elevated neutrophil count can suggest infection or inflammation but does not pinpoint appendicitis specifically without more localized symptoms.
D. Sudden onset of severe anxiety, fear, and concern: These symptoms may suggest a psychiatric or stress-related condition, or even a cardiac event in some cases, but they are not characteristic of appendicitis and do not support the suspicion of appendicitis.
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