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The nurse on a burn unit has just received a change-of-shift report about these clients. Which client does the nurse assess first?

An electrician who suffered external burn injuries a month ago and is asking the nurse to contact the healthcare provider immediately about discharge plans.

Older adult client admitted yesterday with partial- and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body who is receiving IV fluids at 250 mL/hr.

Adult client admitted a week ago with deep partial-thickness burns over 35% of the body who is reporting pain.

Firefighter with smoke inhalation and facial burns who has just arrived on the unit.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: The electrician who suffered external burn injuries a month ago is stable enough to be concerned with discharge plans. This indicates that his burns have been managed and he is in a phase of recovery where he is preparing for discharge. Although his request is important, it is not an immediate priority compared to more acute conditions.

Choice B reason: The older adult client admitted yesterday with partial- and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body is in a critical condition and needs continuous monitoring, especially with high fluid administration. However, their condition is currently being managed with IV fluids. While this client requires close observation, there is no immediate indication of a life-threatening change that demands immediate intervention compared to the firefighter's situation.

Choice C reason: The adult client admitted a week ago with deep partial-thickness burns over 35% of the body who is reporting pain is also in need of pain management and ongoing care. However, pain, while significant and requiring treatment, does not take precedence over the potential airway compromise and respiratory distress posed by smoke inhalation and facial burns in the firefighter.

Choice D reason: The firefighter with smoke inhalation and facial burns who has just arrived on the unit must be assessed first due to the immediate risk of airway compromise and respiratory distress. Smoke inhalation can lead to rapid swelling of the airways, making it a critical emergency. Facial burns also increase the risk of airway obstruction. Prompt assessment and intervention are essential to ensure the firefighter's airway remains patent and to provide necessary respiratory support.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Medicating the patient for pain is not the most appropriate immediate action in this situation. While pain management is important, the primary concern should be addressing the significant changes in heart rate and blood pressure, which may indicate a more serious underlying issue.

Choice B reason: Allowing the patient to rest quietly is not the appropriate response to the noted changes in vital signs. The increase in heart rate and drop in blood pressure are signs that require immediate investigation and intervention, rather than passive observation.

Choice C reason: Assessing the patient for bleeding is the most appropriate action. The increase in heart rate and decrease in blood pressure following an angioplasty procedure are concerning for potential bleeding or hemorrhage, especially if the patient has an intra-arterial line. Quick assessment and intervention are crucial to address any bleeding and stabilize the patient's condition.

Choice D reason: Documenting the findings in the chart is necessary, but it should not be the immediate priority. The nurse must first assess and address the potential cause of the changes in vital signs, such as bleeding, before documenting the events.

A. Increased serum calcium. B. Decreased serum ammonia. C. Increased ALT and AST. D. Decreased albumin. E. Elevated bilirubin. F. Elevated prothrombin time (PT).

Correct Answer is ["C","D","E","F"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: Increased serum calcium is not typically associated with advanced liver disease. Hypercalcemia (increased serum calcium) may be seen in conditions like hyperparathyroidism, certain cancers, or excessive vitamin D intake, but it is not a common finding in liver disease.

Choice B reason: Decreased serum ammonia is also not associated with advanced liver disease. In fact, patients with liver disease often have increased serum ammonia levels due to the liver's inability to effectively detoxify ammonia into urea. Elevated ammonia can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver disease.

Choice C reason: Increased ALT and AST are common laboratory findings in advanced liver disease. These liver enzymes, alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST), are released into the bloodstream when liver cells are damaged or inflamed. Elevated levels indicate liver injury or dysfunction and are often used to assess the extent of liver disease.

Choice D reason: Decreased albumin is a typical finding in advanced liver disease. Albumin is a protein produced by the liver, and its levels drop when the liver is no longer able to synthesize it effectively. Low albumin levels can lead to edema and ascites due to decreased oncotic pressure in the blood vessels.

Choice E reason: Elevated bilirubin is expected in advanced liver disease. Bilirubin is a byproduct of red blood cell breakdown that is normally processed and excreted by the liver. When liver function is impaired, bilirubin accumulates in the blood, leading to jaundice, characterized by yellowing of the skin and eyes.

Choice F reason: Elevated prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in advanced liver disease. The liver produces clotting factors necessary for blood coagulation, and when it is damaged, these factors are not produced adequately, leading to prolonged PT. This indicates a higher risk of bleeding and impaired clotting function.

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The nurse on a burn unit has just received a change-of-shift report about these clients. Which client does the nurse assess first?

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Correct Answer is C

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Correct Answer is ["C","D","E","F"]

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