The nurse receives a change-of-shift report from the prior nurse assigned to a group of clients on a post-surgical unit. Which client requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
A client who had an abdominal-perineal resection 3 days ago has no drainage on the dressing and is reporting chills.
A client who fell from a ladder and has a collapsed left lower lung with 100 mL drainage in a chest tube collection container.
A client who was admitted 4 hours ago with a gunshot wound and has a dressing with 2 cm-sized dark red drainage.
A client who is post-mastectomy 2 days ago and has 50 mL of serosanguineous fluid in a Jackson-Pratt drain.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: This client may have an infection or sepsis, which are life-threatening complications of surgery. The nurse should assess the client's vital signs, wound appearance, and laboratory results, and notify the physician immediately.
Choice B reason: This client has a chest tube to drain the pleural fluid and re-expand the lung. The amount of drainage is within normal limits and does not indicate an emergency. The nurse should monitor the client's respiratory status, oxygen saturation, and chest tube function.
Choice C reason: This client has a gunshot wound that may have caused tissue damage and bleeding. The dressing with 2 cm-sized dark red drainage may indicate fresh bleeding, but it is not excessive. The nurse should check the dressing for signs of infection, change it as ordered, and report any changes to the physician.
Choice D reason: This client has a Jackson-Pratt drain to collect the fluid from the surgical site after a mastectomy. The amount of serosanguineous fluid is expected and does not indicate a problem. The nurse should empty and measure the drain output, record it, and report any abnormalities to the physician.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: The initial administration of the analgesic is not an intervention that the charge nurse should counsel the nurse about. The opioid analgesic was prescribed by the healthcare provider and was appropriate for the postoperative pain management of the client.
Choice B Reason: The decision regarding when to call the healthcare provider is an intervention that the charge nurse should counsel the nurse about. The nurse should have called the healthcare provider as soon as the client's
respiratory rate decreased to 6 breaths/minute, which is a sign of opioid-induced respiratory depression. Waiting for another 30 minutes until the respiratory rate decreased to 4 breaths/minute could have put the client at risk of hypoxia, brain damage, or death.
Choice C Reason: The documentation of the client's respiratory rate is not an intervention that the charge nurse should counsel the nurse about. The nurse documented the client's respiratory rate accurately and timely, which is part of the standard of care and legal responsibility of the nurse.
Choice D Reason: The administration of naloxone via IV is not an intervention that the charge nurse should counsel the nurse about. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that reverses the effects of opioids and restores normal respiration. Administering naloxone via IV is the fastest and most effective way to treat opioid-induced respiratory depression.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Contacting the healthcare provider is not the priority action because restraints should only be used as a last resort and not for staff convenience. The nurse manager should first ensure that the client's safety and dignity are respected.
Choice B Reason: This is the correct answer because restraints are not indicated for this situation and violate the client's rights. The nurse manager should educate the staff nurse about the ethical and legal implications of using restraints without proper justification and documentation.
Choice C Reason: Closing the door to the room is not a priority action because it does not address the issue of restraints. It also may isolate the client and increase her anxiety and distress.
Choice D Reason: Determining if the client has a PRN prescription for an antianxiety agent is not a priority action because it does not address the issue of restraints. It also may not be appropriate to medicate the client without assessing her condition and obtaining her consent.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today