The nurse understands that which of the following is a manifestation of aortic stenosis?
Narrowed pulse pressure
Sinus tachycardia
Apical diastolic murmur
S3 heart sound
The Correct Answer is A
A. Narrowed pulse pressure: Aortic stenosis leads to obstruction of blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta during systole, reducing systolic pressure while diastolic pressure remains unchanged or slightly elevated. This results in a narrowed pulse pressure, a classic finding in moderate to severe aortic stenosis.
B. Sinus tachycardia: While tachycardia can occur in response to decreased cardiac output or stress, it is not a defining feature of aortic stenosis. The hallmark findings relate more directly to fixed cardiac output and valve obstruction.
C. Apical diastolic murmur: Aortic stenosis produces a systolic ejection murmur, best heard at the right second intercostal space and radiating to the carotids. An apical diastolic murmur would suggest mitral stenosis or other diastolic valve pathology.
D. S3 heart sound: An S3 is more indicative of volume overload and heart failure rather than valvular stenosis. While advanced aortic stenosis can lead to heart failure, the S3 is not a primary or early manifestation of this condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Radiofrequency ablation: This is used to treat tachyarrhythmias such as atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, or supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The ECG shown does not demonstrate any tachycardic rhythm rather, it shows a bradyarrhythmia with dropped QRS complexes, which suggests a conduction block, not a reentrant circuit.
B. Administration of amiodarone: Amiodarone is primarily used for ventricular arrhythmias or atrial fibrillation. It is not effective in treating bradyarrhythmias or heart blocks such as those seen in this rhythm strip.
C. Insertion of a pacemaker: The rhythm strip shows intermittent dropped QRS complexes with consistent P waves—this is indicative of second-degree AV block, Mobitz II. This type of conduction block can progress to complete heart block and is often treated with the insertion of a permanent pacemaker to maintain cardiac output.
D. Administration of adenosine: Adenosine is used to terminate SVT by temporarily blocking AV node conduction. It is contraindicated in heart blocks, especially Mobitz II or third-degree AV block, because it can worsen the block and cause asystole.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Cardiovert in the synchronized mode: Synchronized cardioversion is used for hemodynamically unstable but conscious patients with rhythms like atrial fibrillation or supraventricular tachycardia. It is not appropriate for a pulseless patient with ventricular fibrillation, as synchronization requires detectable R-waves.
B. Defibrillate immediately with a biphasic machine: The rhythm strip shows ventricular fibrillation (VF) a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by chaotic, irregular waveform with no identifiable PQRST and no effective cardiac output. The patient is unresponsive and pulseless, making immediate defibrillation the priority action, as per Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS) guidelines.
C. Take a full set of vital signs: The client is already unresponsive and pulseless, making a full set of vitals irrelevant at this moment. Immediate resuscitation efforts, including defibrillation and CPR, take priority.
D. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation: While CPR is a critical part of the algorithm for pulseless rhythms, defibrillation is the first priority in ventricular fibrillation when a defibrillator is available and ready. CPR should be started immediately after the shock if no pulse returns.
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